General Studies

Indian Polity and Constitution: Practice Questions with Answers

238 practice questions on Indian Polity and Constitution, with answers; most also have an explanation or a worked solution. Try each one before you open its answer.

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1. Q.1

   What is the minimum age for a person to be chosen as a member of the Rajya Sabha?

   1. A 21 years
   2. B 25 years
   3. C 30 years
   4. D 35 years
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (C) 30 years

   Article 84 sets the minimum age at 30 years for the Rajya Sabha and 25 years for the Lok Sabha. The same pattern applies in states: 25 years for the Legislative Assembly and 30 years for the Legislative Council (Article 173).

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2. Q.2

   Article 243D reserves for women not less than what proportion of the total seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat?

   1. A One-fourth
   2. B One-third
   3. C One-half
   4. D Two-thirds
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (B) One-third

   Article 243D requires at least one-third of directly elected seats, and of the offices of chairpersons, in Panchayats to be reserved for women, counting the seats reserved for SC and ST women. Many states have raised this to one-half by their own laws.

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3. Q.3

   Under Article 22, a person arrested and held in custody (other than under preventive detention) must be produced before the nearest magistrate within:

   1. A 24 hours
   2. B 12 hours
   3. C 48 hours
   4. D 72 hours
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   Correct answer: (A) 24 hours

   Article 22(2) requires production before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding the time taken for the journey. These safeguards do not apply to enemy aliens or to persons held under preventive detention laws.

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4. Q.4

   Under Article 61, a resolution for the impeachment of the President must be passed in each House by a majority of not less than:

   1. A Two-thirds of the total membership of the House
   2. B One-half of the members present and voting
   3. C Two-thirds of the members present and voting
   4. D Three-fourths of the total membership of the House
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (A) Two-thirds of the total membership of the House

   Article 61 requires the charge to be moved after at least 14 days' written notice signed by not less than one-fourth of the total members of the House, and the resolution must be passed by not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House. The other House then investigates the charge and must sustain it by the same majority.

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5. Q.5

   Which type of emergency provided in the Constitution has never been imposed in India so far?

   1. A National emergency under Article 352
   2. B President's rule under Article 356
   3. C Emergency on the ground of armed rebellion
   4. D Financial emergency under Article 360
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (D) Financial emergency under Article 360

   Financial emergency under Article 360 has never been proclaimed. National emergency was imposed in 1962, 1971 and 1975, and President's rule has been used more than a hundred times.

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6. Q.6

   Which writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal while proceedings are still pending, to stop it from exceeding its jurisdiction?

   1. A Certiorari
   2. B Prohibition
   3. C Mandamus
   4. D Quo warranto
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (B) Prohibition

   Prohibition is purely preventive and is issued while proceedings are pending. Certiorari is both preventive and curative, as it can also quash an order already passed.

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7. Q.7

   Which law deals with the actual conduct of elections, qualifications and disqualifications for membership, and corrupt practices?

   1. A Representation of the People Act, 1950
   2. B Representation of the People Act, 1951
   3. C Delimitation Act, 2002
   4. D Government of Union Territories Act, 1963
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (B) Representation of the People Act, 1951

   The Representation of the People Act, 1951 covers the conduct of elections, qualifications and disqualifications of members, corrupt practices and election disputes. The 1950 Act deals mainly with the allocation of seats and the preparation of electoral rolls.

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8. Q.8

   Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, in force from 31 October 2019, the former state was reorganised into:

   1. A Two union territories: Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and Ladakh without one
   2. B Two union territories, both without legislatures
   3. C Two union territories, both with legislatures
   4. D A single union territory of Jammu and Kashmir that includes Ladakh
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   Correct answer: (A) Two union territories: Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and Ladakh without one

   The Act created the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislative assembly and the union territory of Ladakh without one. It followed the Presidential Orders of August 2019 that applied the whole Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir.

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9. Q.9

   Consider the following statements: 1. Adjournment of a House sine die is done by its presiding officer. 2. Prorogation of a session of Parliament is done by the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

   1. A Only 1
   2. B Only 2
   3. C Both 1 and 2
   4. D Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

   The presiding officer ends a sitting by adjourning the House sine die, that is, without fixing a day for the next sitting. The President then prorogues the House under Article 85(2), which ends the session.

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10. Q.10

    Arrange the following in the order in which they became states of the Indian Union, earliest first: 1. Nagaland 2. Haryana 3. Sikkim 4. Goa

    1. A 2, 1, 3, 4
    2. B 1, 3, 2, 4
    3. C 2, 1, 4, 3
    4. D 1, 2, 3, 4
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

    Nagaland became a state in 1963, Haryana was carved out of Punjab in 1966, Sikkim became a state in 1975 and Goa attained statehood in 1987.

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11. Q.11

    Under Article 3, a bill to form a new state or alter the boundaries of an existing state can be introduced in Parliament only:

    1. A After a referendum in the state concerned
    2. B With the consent of the state legislature concerned
    3. C On the prior recommendation of the President
    4. D With the approval of the Supreme Court
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) On the prior recommendation of the President

    Article 3 requires the President's prior recommendation, and the President must refer the bill to the affected state legislature for its views within a set period. Those views are not binding on the President or Parliament.

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12. Q.12

    Dr B.R. Ambedkar described which Article as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

    1. A Article 14
    2. B Article 21
    3. C Article 32
    4. D Article 368
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Article 32

    Article 32 gives the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights through writs. Ambedkar called it the heart and soul of the Constitution because without it the rights would be unenforceable.

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13. Q.13

    Which writ is issued by a court to enquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office?

    1. A Mandamus
    2. B Quo warranto
    3. C Certiorari
    4. D Habeas corpus
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) Quo warranto

    Quo warranto (by what authority) prevents illegal usurpation of a public office. Mandamus commands a public authority to perform its duty, certiorari quashes an order and habeas corpus secures release from illegal detention.

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14. Q.14

    The 104th Amendment Act, 2019, in force from 25 January 2020, made which change?

    1. A Reserved one-third of Lok Sabha seats for women
    2. B Ended the nomination of Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha and state assemblies
    3. C Gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes
    4. D Provided reservation for economically weaker sections
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    Correct answer: (B) Ended the nomination of Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha and state assemblies

    The 104th Amendment did not extend the nomination of Anglo-Indians under Articles 331 and 333 beyond January 2020, while extending SC and ST seat reservation in the Lok Sabha and assemblies for ten more years, to 2030. Women's reservation came with the 106th Amendment and EWS reservation with the 103rd.

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15. Q.15

    An ordinance promulgated by the President under Article 123 ceases to operate, unless approved, after how long from the reassembly of Parliament?

    1. A Two weeks
    2. B One month
    3. C Six weeks
    4. D Six months
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Six weeks

    An ordinance must be laid before both Houses and lapses six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved earlier. The maximum life of an ordinance is therefore six months plus six weeks.

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16. Q.16

    Which Article of the Constitution provides for elections to the Lok Sabha and state Assemblies on the basis of universal adult franchise?

    1. A Article 324
    2. B Article 325
    3. C Article 329
    4. D Article 326
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) Article 326

    Article 326 provides for adult suffrage for every citizen of 18 years and above who is not otherwise disqualified. Article 324 relates to the Election Commission and Article 329 bars court interference in electoral matters.

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17. Q.17

    Why was 26 January chosen as the date for the commencement of the Constitution in 1950?

    1. A Purna Swaraj Day had been celebrated on 26 January 1930
    2. B The Quit India Resolution was passed on that date
    3. C The Objectives Resolution was adopted on that date
    4. D Mahatma Gandhi began the Dandi March on that date
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Purna Swaraj Day had been celebrated on 26 January 1930

    Following the Lahore session of the Congress (December 1929), 26 January 1930 was observed as Purna Swaraj (complete independence) Day, so the Constitution was brought into force on 26 January 1950 to honour it.

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18. Q.18

    The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 provides for reserving one-third of seats for women in all of the following EXCEPT:

    1. A Lok Sabha
    2. B State Legislative Assemblies
    3. C Rajya Sabha
    4. D Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Rajya Sabha

    The 106th Amendment (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) inserted Articles 330A, 332A and 334A and amended Article 239AA to reserve one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha, state assemblies and the Delhi Assembly. It does not cover the Rajya Sabha or Legislative Councils. The Act came into force on 16 April 2026, but the reservation itself takes effect only after the delimitation that follows the first census taken after that date.

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19. Q.19

    Which Article gives religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice?

    1. A Article 30
    2. B Article 29
    3. C Article 26
    4. D Article 28
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    Correct answer: (A) Article 30

    Article 30 grants this right to all minorities based on religion or language. Article 29 protects the right of any section of citizens to conserve its distinct language, script or culture.

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20. Q.20

    Freedom of the press is not expressly mentioned in the Constitution, but the Supreme Court has held it to be implied in:

    1. A Article 19(1)(a)
    2. B Article 19(1)(g)
    3. C Article 21
    4. D Article 25
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Article 19(1)(a)

    Freedom of the press is part of the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), subject to the reasonable restrictions in Article 19(2). Article 19(1)(g) protects the freedom to practise any profession or carry on any trade or business.

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21. Q.21

    The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, which gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions, came into force on:

    1. A 24 April 1993
    2. B 1 June 1993
    3. C 2 October 1992
    4. D 26 January 1994
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    Correct answer: (A) 24 April 1993

    The 73rd Amendment commenced on 24 April 1993, now celebrated as National Panchayati Raj Day. The 74th Amendment on municipalities came into force on 1 June 1993.

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22. Q.22

    Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, which of the following is NOT a way of losing Indian citizenship?

    1. A Renunciation
    2. B Registration
    3. C Termination
    4. D Deprivation
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    Correct answer: (B) Registration

    The Act provides three ways of losing citizenship: renunciation by a declaration, termination on voluntarily acquiring a foreign citizenship, and deprivation by an order of the Central Government. Registration is a way of acquiring citizenship.

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23. Q.23

    Which Article provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?

    1. A Article 131
    2. B Article 136
    3. C Article 141
    4. D Article 143
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    Correct answer: (C) Article 141

    Article 141 makes Supreme Court decisions binding on all other courts. Article 131 is original jurisdiction, Article 136 special leave to appeal and Article 143 advisory jurisdiction.

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24. Q.24

    Unlike the writ of mandamus, the writ of habeas corpus can be issued against:

    1. A Only courts and tribunals
    2. B Only the President and Governors
    3. C Only officers holding a substantive public office
    4. D Both public authorities and private individuals
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) Both public authorities and private individuals

    Habeas corpus ('to have the body') orders whoever is detaining a person to produce the detainee before the court, so it lies against public authorities and private individuals alike. Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual.

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25. Q.25

    The Fundamental Duty to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures, is contained in:

    1. A Article 48A
    2. B Article 51A(h)
    3. C Article 51A(j)
    4. D Article 51A(g)
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) Article 51A(g)

    Article 51A(g) is the environmental duty of citizens, while Article 48A is the matching Directive Principle addressed to the State. Article 51A(h) concerns scientific temper and 51A(j) striving towards excellence.

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26. Q.26

    Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, what was to be the total strength of the Constituent Assembly?

    1. A 299
    2. B 296
    3. C 389
    4. D 292
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    Correct answer: (C) 389

    The Plan fixed the strength at 389: 296 seats for British India (292 from the governors' provinces and 4 from the chief commissioners' provinces) and 93 for the princely states. After partition the strength came down to 299.

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27. Q.27

    Which Supreme Court judge is regarded as the pioneer of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India?

    1. A Justice H.R. Khanna
    2. B Justice M. Hidayatullah
    3. C Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
    4. D Justice P.N. Bhagwati
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

    Justice P.N. Bhagwati, along with Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, pioneered PIL in the late 1970s and early 1980s by relaxing the rule of locus standi.

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28. Q.28

    A motion of no confidence against the Council of Ministers can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and needs the support of at least how many members for admission?

    1. A 25 members
    2. B 100 members
    3. C One-tenth of total membership
    4. D 50 members
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    Correct answer: (D) 50 members

    A no-confidence motion needs at least 50 members' support to be admitted and can be moved only in the Lok Sabha because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to it under Article 75(3).

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29. Q.29

    The S.R. Bommai case (1994) is chiefly associated with which constitutional provision?

    1. A Imposition of President's rule in states under Article 356
    2. B Appointment of judges under Article 124
    3. C Freedom of speech under Article 19
    4. D Reservation in promotions under Article 16
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Imposition of President's rule in states under Article 356

    In S.R. Bommai v Union of India (1994) the Supreme Court held that a proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review, that majority should be tested on the floor of the House, and that secularism is part of the basic structure.

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30. Q.30

    The Comptroller and Auditor General of India, provided under Article 148, holds office for:

    1. A Five years or until the age of 62, whichever is earlier
    2. B During the pleasure of the President
    3. C Six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier
    4. D Six years or until the age of 70, whichever is earlier
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier

    The CAG is appointed by the President for six years or up to age 65, whichever comes first, and can be removed only in the manner of a Supreme Court judge. Ambedkar called the CAG the most important officer under the Constitution.

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31. Q.31

    The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution in 1976 on the recommendation of which committee?

    1. A Sarkaria Commission
    2. B Santhanam Committee
    3. C Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
    4. D Swaran Singh Committee
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) Swaran Singh Committee

    The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended Fundamental Duties, which were added as Part IVA, Article 51A, by the 42nd Amendment. Santhanam Committee led to the CVC and Sarkaria Commission studied Centre-State relations.

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32. Q.32

    Which Article of the Directive Principles directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State?

    1. A Article 50
    2. B Article 49
    3. C Article 51
    4. D Article 39
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Article 50

    Article 50 calls for separation of the judiciary from the executive. Article 49 concerns protection of monuments of national importance and Article 51 the promotion of international peace and security.

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33. Q.33

    The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament under Article 100(3) is:

    1. A One-tenth of the total number of members of the House
    2. B One-fourth of the total number of members of the House
    3. C One-third of the members present
    4. D 50 members
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House

    Under Article 100(3), the quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House, including the presiding officer. If there is no quorum, the presiding officer must adjourn the House or suspend the sitting until there is one.

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34. Q.34

    The emergency provisions, Articles 352 to 360, are contained in which Part of the Constitution?

    1. A Part XVIII
    2. B Part XVI
    3. C Part XIV
    4. D Part XIX
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Part XVIII

    Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) deals with national emergency, failure of constitutional machinery in states and financial emergency. Part XIV concerns services under the Union and the states, and Part XVI special provisions relating to certain classes.

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35. Q.35

    Provisions on the emoluments, allowances and privileges of the President, Governors, Speaker, judges and the Comptroller and Auditor General are contained in which Schedule?

    1. A First Schedule
    2. B Second Schedule
    3. C Third Schedule
    4. D Fifth Schedule
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    Correct answer: (B) Second Schedule

    The Second Schedule deals with the emoluments of these constitutional functionaries. The First Schedule lists the states and union territories and their territories.

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36. Q.36

    The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 eased citizenship for members of six specified communities who entered India on or before 31 December 2014 from which countries?

    1. A Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan
    2. B Bangladesh, Pakistan and Sri Lanka
    3. C Afghanistan, Myanmar and Pakistan
    4. D Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan
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    Correct answer: (A) Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan

    The Act covers Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who entered India on or before 31 December 2014. Sri Lanka, Myanmar and Nepal are not covered.

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37. Q.37

    What is the minimum age prescribed by Article 58 for a person to be eligible for election as President of India?

    1. A 30 years
    2. B 35 years
    3. C 40 years
    4. D 45 years
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) 35 years

    Article 58 requires the President to be a citizen of India, to have completed 35 years of age and to be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha. The same minimum age applies to the Vice-President under Article 66.

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38. Q.38

    Which date does the Preamble mention as the day on which the people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution?

    1. A 26 January 1950
    2. B 26 November 1949
    3. C 15 August 1947
    4. D 9 December 1946
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    Correct answer: (B) 26 November 1949

    The Preamble closes with 'in our Constituent Assembly this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949', the date of adoption. 26 January 1950 is the date of commencement, which the Preamble does not mention.

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39. Q.39

    The anti-defection law contained in the Tenth Schedule was added to the Constitution by:

    1. A 52nd Amendment, 1985
    2. B 44th Amendment, 1978
    3. C 61st Amendment, 1989
    4. D 91st Amendment, 2003
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    Correct answer: (A) 52nd Amendment, 1985

    The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, passed during Rajiv Gandhi's government, inserted the Tenth Schedule providing for disqualification of members on the ground of defection.

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40. Q.40

    After the 44th Amendment, 1978, the President can proclaim a national emergency only on:

    1. A The oral advice of the Prime Minister
    2. B A resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
    3. C The recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
    4. D The written recommendation of the Union Cabinet
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) The written recommendation of the Union Cabinet

    The 44th Amendment inserted Article 352(3), requiring the Union Cabinet's decision to be communicated to the President in writing. The 1975 emergency had been proclaimed on the Prime Minister's advice without prior consultation of the Cabinet.

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41. Q.41

    A proclamation of President's Rule under Article 356 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within:

    1. A One month
    2. B Six weeks
    3. C Six months
    4. D Two months
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    Correct answer: (D) Two months

    Article 356 requires parliamentary approval within two months of the proclamation. Once approved, it continues for six months at a time and can be extended up to a maximum of three years.

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42. Q.42

    Under Article 9, a person shall not be a citizen of India if he or she:

    1. A Takes up employment in a foreign country
    2. B Marries a foreign national
    3. C Has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state
    4. D Does not vote in two successive general elections
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state

    Article 9 provides that a person who has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state is not a citizen of India, in line with India's single citizenship. Working abroad or marrying a foreigner does not by itself end Indian citizenship.

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43. Q.43

    According to the Preamble, the Constitution of India derives its authority from:

    1. A The Constituent Assembly
    2. B The Parliament of India
    3. C The Indian Independence Act, 1947
    4. D The people of India
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) The people of India

    The Preamble opens with 'We, the people of India', declaring the people to be the source of the Constitution's authority. The Constituent Assembly framed the Constitution on their behalf.

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44. Q.44

    On what grounds can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed under Article 124(4)?

    1. A Proved misbehaviour or incapacity
    2. B Violation of the Constitution
    3. C Loss of confidence of the President
    4. D Any ground, by a simple majority of Parliament
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity

    Article 124(4) permits removal only for proved misbehaviour or incapacity, by an order of the President after an address by each House passed by a majority of its total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting. 'Violation of the Constitution' is the ground for impeaching the President.

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45. Q.45

    Which amendment limited the size of the Council of Ministers to 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha?

    1. A 86th Amendment, 2002
    2. B 91st Amendment, 2003
    3. C 97th Amendment, 2011
    4. D 101st Amendment, 2016
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) 91st Amendment, 2003

    The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 inserted Article 75(1A) capping the Council of Ministers at 15 per cent of the Lok Sabha strength, with a similar cap for states under Article 164(1A).

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46. Q.46

    Consider the following statements about a national emergency under Article 352: 1. It may be proclaimed for the whole of India or only a part of it. 2. It may be proclaimed even before the actual occurrence of war, external aggression or armed rebellion, if there is imminent danger. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A Only 1
    2. B Only 2
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    The 42nd Amendment enabled the President to limit an emergency to a specified part of India, and the Explanation to Article 352(1) allows a proclamation once the President is satisfied that such danger is imminent.

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47. Q.47

    Laws made by Parliament under Articles 2 and 3 to admit new states or alter state boundaries:

    1. A Need a special majority and ratification by half the states
    2. B Need the consent of every state affected
    3. C Can be made only through a Presidential ordinance
    4. D Are not amendments under Article 368 and can be passed by a simple majority
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) Are not amendments under Article 368 and can be passed by a simple majority

    Article 4 declares that such laws are not to be deemed amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Parliament therefore passes them by a simple majority in the ordinary legislative process.

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48. Q.48

    In which case did the Supreme Court in 1951 first hold that Parliament's power under Article 368 includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights?

    1. A Golaknath v State of Punjab
    2. B Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala
    3. C Shankari Prasad v Union of India
    4. D Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Shankari Prasad v Union of India

    In Shankari Prasad (1951), which upheld the 1st Amendment, the Court held that the amending power covers Fundamental Rights. Sajjan Singh (1965) took the same view before Golaknath (1967) reversed it.

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49. Q.49

    Provisions relating to Municipalities, added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, are contained in which Part of the Constitution?

    1. A Part IX
    2. B Part IXA
    3. C Part IXB
    4. D Part X
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) Part IXA

    The 74th Amendment inserted Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG) on Municipalities, along with the Twelfth Schedule. Part IX deals with Panchayats, and Part IXB, added by the 97th Amendment of 2011, deals with co-operative societies.

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50. Q.50

    Which protection is guaranteed by Article 20(2) of the Constitution?

    1. A No person shall be compelled to be a witness against himself
    2. B No person shall be convicted under an ex post facto criminal law
    3. C Every arrested person shall be informed of the grounds of arrest
    4. D No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once

    Article 20(2) bars double jeopardy. Article 20(1) bars ex post facto criminal laws and Article 20(3) protects against self-incrimination, while the right to know the grounds of arrest is in Article 22.

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