Pariksha SaathiGeneral Studies
Indian Polity and Constitution: Practice Questions with Answers
238 practice questions on Indian Polity and Constitution, with answers; most also have an explanation or a worked solution. Try each one before you open its answer.
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Q.51
The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, which extended Part IX to the Fifth Schedule areas, was enacted in:
- A 1992
- B 1993
- C 1996
- D 2006
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) 1996
The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) extended the Panchayat provisions, with modifications, to the Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, giving the Gram Sabha a central role. Article 243M had kept these areas outside Part IX until Parliament provided otherwise.
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Q.52
The first-ever joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament, held in 1961, was summoned to resolve a deadlock over which bill?
- A Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill
- B Prevention of Terrorism Bill
- C Hindu Code Bill
- D Dowry Prohibition Bill
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Dowry Prohibition Bill
The first joint sitting under Article 108 was held in May 1961 on the Dowry Prohibition Bill. The later joint sittings dealt with the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill in 1978 and the Prevention of Terrorism Bill in 2002.
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Q.53
Which authority alone has the power to pardon a sentence of death under the Constitution of India?
- A The Governor of the state
- B The Chief Justice of India
- C The Home Minister
- D The President of India
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) The President of India
Under Article 72 the President can pardon, commute or remit a death sentence. The Governor under Article 161 cannot pardon a death sentence, though he may suspend, remit or commute it.
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Q.54
Under Article 85, the maximum gap allowed between the last sitting of one session of Parliament and the first sitting of the next session is:
- A Two months
- B Three months
- C Four months
- D Six months
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Six months
Article 85(1) requires the President to summon each House so that six months do not pass between its last sitting in one session and its first sitting in the next. Hence Parliament must meet at least twice a year; by convention it holds three sessions: Budget, Monsoon and Winter.
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Q.55
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up in 1964 on the recommendation of which committee?
- A Santhanam Committee
- B Swaran Singh Committee
- C Sarkaria Commission
- D Kothari Committee
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Santhanam Committee
The CVC was created by an executive resolution in 1964 on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption and was given statutory status by the CVC Act, 2003.
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Q.56
The procedure for amendment of the Constitution and the election of members of the Rajya Sabha were borrowed from the constitution of:
- A Canada
- B South Africa
- C Australia
- D Britain
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) South Africa
Both features were taken from the Constitution of South Africa. Australia contributed the Concurrent List and joint sitting, and Britain the parliamentary system.
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Q.57
Which of the following motions can be moved only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha?
- A Calling attention motion
- B Privilege motion
- C Motion of thanks on the President's address
- D Adjournment motion
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Adjournment motion
An adjournment motion draws attention to a definite matter of urgent public importance, needs the support of 50 members and is not available in the Rajya Sabha because it involves an element of censure of the government. Calling attention, privilege and motions of thanks are moved in both Houses.
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Q.58
The Maneka Gandhi case (1978) is a landmark because the Supreme Court held that:
- A The right to property is not a Fundamental Right
- B The procedure under Article 21 must be just, fair and reasonable, not merely enacted by law
- C Preventive detention is unconstitutional
- D Article 356 is subject to judicial review
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) The procedure under Article 21 must be just, fair and reasonable, not merely enacted by law
Overruling the narrow view in A.K. Gopalan (1950), the Court in Maneka Gandhi read Articles 14, 19 and 21 together and held that any procedure depriving personal liberty must be fair, just and reasonable.
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Q.59
Under Article 324(5), the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only:
- A In the like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
- B By the President on the advice of the Prime Minister
- C By a resolution of the Lok Sabha alone
- D On the recommendation of the other Election Commissioners
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) In the like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
The proviso to Article 324(5) protects the Chief Election Commissioner by allowing removal only like a Supreme Court judge, and his conditions of service cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment. Other Election Commissioners can be removed only on the CEC's recommendation.
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Q.60
The provision allowing the same person to be appointed Governor of two or more states was added by which Constitutional Amendment?
- A 1st Amendment, 1951
- B 7th Amendment, 1956
- C 24th Amendment, 1971
- D 42nd Amendment, 1976
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) 7th Amendment, 1956
The 7th Amendment of 1956 added a proviso to Article 153 so that one person can be Governor of two or more states. The minimum age for appointment as Governor is 35 years (Article 157).
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Q.61
Which Article declares that any law inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void, providing the clearest textual basis for judicial review in India?
- A Article 13
- B Article 32
- C Article 141
- D Article 368
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Article 13
Article 13 makes laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void to the extent of the inconsistency, and courts enforce this through judicial review. The term 'judicial review' itself does not appear in the Constitution; the power also flows from Articles 32 and 226.
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Q.62
A resolution for the removal of the Vice-President of India can be moved only in:
- A The Lok Sabha
- B Either House of Parliament
- C A joint sitting of both Houses
- D The Rajya Sabha
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) The Rajya Sabha
Under Article 67(b), the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of all its then members and agreed to by the Lok Sabha, after at least 14 days' notice. No formal impeachment is needed, and the resolution cannot start in the Lok Sabha.
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Q.63
In Parliament, a 'starred question' is one that:
- A Requires an oral answer, and supplementary questions can be asked
- B Requires a written answer only
- C Can be answered only by the Prime Minister
- D Is asked at short notice on an urgent matter
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Requires an oral answer, and supplementary questions can be asked
A starred question, marked with an asterisk, is answered orally on the floor of the House and allows supplementary questions. An unstarred question gets a written answer, and a short notice question is asked on an urgent matter with less than ten days' notice.
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Q.64
Which committee of the Constituent Assembly was chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel?
- A Union Powers Committee
- B Steering Committee
- C Rules of Procedure Committee
- D Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas
Sardar Patel chaired the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas, and also the Provincial Constitution Committee. Nehru chaired the Union Powers Committee, and Dr Rajendra Prasad the Steering and Rules of Procedure Committees.
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Q.65
Under which Article can Parliament make a law on a State List subject if the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting it?
- A Article 249
- B Article 250
- C Article 252
- D Article 253
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Article 252
Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate on a state subject for two or more states that pass resolutions to that effect, and other states may adopt the law later. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is a well-known example of a law made this way.
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Q.66
The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament consists of how many members?
- A 22 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha
- B 30 members, all from Lok Sabha
- C 45 members: 30 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha
- D 22 members, all from Lok Sabha
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) 22 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha
The PAC has 22 members (15 Lok Sabha, 7 Rajya Sabha) and by convention its chairman is from the opposition. The Estimates Committee has 30 members, all from Lok Sabha.
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Q.67
Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A?
- A To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
- B To vote in elections
- C To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
- D To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) To vote in elections
Voting is not among the eleven Fundamental Duties; elections on the basis of adult suffrage are provided for by Article 326. The other three are duties under Article 51A(i), 51A(f) and 51A(d) respectively.
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Q.68
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on which date?
- A 26 November 1949
- B 9 December 1946
- C 15 August 1947
- D 26 January 1950
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) 9 December 1946
The Constituent Assembly first met on 9 December 1946 with Dr Sachchidananda Sinha as temporary chairman. 26 November 1949 is the date of adoption and 26 January 1950 the date of commencement of the Constitution.
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Q.69
Which of the following took place on 24 January 1950, the final session of the Constituent Assembly?
- A The National Flag was adopted
- B The Objectives Resolution was adopted
- C Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected the first President of India
- D The Constitution was adopted
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected the first President of India
On 24 January 1950 the Assembly elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India and adopted the National Anthem and the National Song. The National Flag was adopted on 22 July 1947, the Objectives Resolution on 22 January 1947 and the Constitution on 26 November 1949.
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Q.70
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced and the GST Council created under Article 279A by which amendment?
- A 97th Amendment, 2011
- B 99th Amendment, 2014
- C 100th Amendment, 2015
- D 101st Amendment, 2016
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) 101st Amendment, 2016
The 101st Amendment Act, 2016 introduced GST and Article 279A for the GST Council chaired by the Union Finance Minister. The 99th Amendment (NJAC) was struck down and the 100th settled the land boundary with Bangladesh.
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Q.71
Which Constitutional Amendment is popularly known as the Mini-Constitution because of the sweeping changes it made?
- A 42nd Amendment, 1976
- B 44th Amendment, 1978
- C 24th Amendment, 1971
- D 73rd Amendment, 1992
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) 42nd Amendment, 1976
The 42nd Amendment, passed during the Emergency, changed the Preamble, added Fundamental Duties, shifted subjects to the Concurrent List and curtailed judicial review, earning the name Mini-Constitution.
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Q.72
The eleventh Fundamental Duty, added by the 86th Amendment in 2002, requires a parent or guardian to:
- A Provide opportunities for education to the child between 6 and 14 years
- B Protect and improve the natural environment
- C Develop scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
- D Safeguard public property and abjure violence
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Provide opportunities for education to the child between 6 and 14 years
Article 51A(k), added by the 86th Amendment, makes it a duty of parents and guardians to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between 6 and 14 years. The other duties were among the original ten.
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Q.73
What is the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha as laid down in Article 80 of the Constitution?
- A 238
- B 245
- C 552
- D 250
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) 250
The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum of 250 members: up to 238 representatives of states and UTs and 12 nominated by the President. Its present sanctioned strength is 245.
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Q.74
Which Article declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record with the power to punish for contempt of itself?
- A Article 129
- B Article 131
- C Article 137
- D Article 141
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Article 129
Article 129 makes the Supreme Court a court of record, so its judgments are preserved as evidence and it can punish for contempt of itself. Article 215 confers the same status on the High Courts.
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Q.75
When there is a lack of quorum of permanent judges, ad hoc judges of the Supreme Court are appointed under Article 127 by:
- A The Chief Justice of India, with the previous consent of the President
- B The President, on the advice of the Prime Minister
- C The collegium of the five senior-most judges
- D The Union Law Minister, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) The Chief Justice of India, with the previous consent of the President
Under Article 127, the Chief Justice of India, with the previous consent of the President and after consulting the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned, may request a High Court judge qualified for appointment to the Supreme Court to sit as an ad hoc judge. Article 128 separately allows retired judges to sit.
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Q.76
Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as:
- A A Federation of States
- B A Union of States and Territories
- C A Union of States
- D A Confederation of States
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) A Union of States
Article 1 says India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. Ambedkar explained the word Union was chosen because the federation is not the result of an agreement among states and no state can secede.
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Q.77
Which Article of the Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form?
- A Article 15
- B Article 17
- C Article 18
- D Article 23
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Article 17
Article 17 abolishes untouchability. Article 15 prohibits discrimination, Article 18 abolishes titles and Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour.
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Q.78
NITI Aayog, which replaced the Planning Commission, was established on which date?
- A 15 March 1950
- B 26 January 2014
- C 1 April 2016
- D 1 January 2015
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) 1 January 2015
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was created by a Cabinet resolution on 1 January 2015, with the Prime Minister as its chairperson. The Planning Commission had been set up on 15 March 1950.
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Q.79
Under the Tenth Schedule, who decides questions of disqualification of a member on the ground of defection?
- A The Election Commission of India
- B The President or the Governor
- C The Presiding Officer of the House, subject to judicial review
- D The Supreme Court directly
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) The Presiding Officer of the House, subject to judicial review
The Speaker or Chairman of the House decides defection cases. In Kihoto Hollohan (1992) the Supreme Court upheld this but held the decision is subject to judicial review.
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Q.80
Under Article 103, if a question arises whether a member of Parliament has become subject to a disqualification (other than defection), the question is decided by:
- A The Speaker or the Chairman of the House concerned
- B The Supreme Court
- C The Election Commission, after consulting the Attorney General
- D The President, acting according to the opinion of the Election Commission
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) The President, acting according to the opinion of the Election Commission
Article 103 makes the President's decision final on disqualifications under Article 102(1), but he must obtain and act according to the opinion of the Election Commission. Disqualification for defection under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the presiding officer instead.
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Q.81
The Sarkaria Commission, appointed in 1983, was set up to examine:
- A Centre-State relations
- B Electoral reforms
- C Reorganisation of states on linguistic basis
- D Administrative reforms in the civil services
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Centre-State relations
The Sarkaria Commission headed by Justice R.S. Sarkaria reviewed Centre-State relations and recommended, among other things, a permanent Inter-State Council. The Punchhi Commission (2007) later revisited the same subject.
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Q.82
The Governor's power to promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session is provided under:
- A Article 123
- B Article 161
- C Article 200
- D Article 213
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Article 213
Article 213 lets the Governor issue ordinances during a recess of the state legislature, on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Article 123 gives the corresponding power to the President, and Article 161 deals with the Governor's pardoning power.
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Q.83
Which of the following is NOT expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 112(3)?
- A Emoluments and allowances of the President
- B Salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court
- C Salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General
- D Salaries and allowances of Union ministers
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Salaries and allowances of Union ministers
Charged expenditure can be discussed but not voted upon in Parliament, and it includes the emoluments of the President and the salaries of Supreme Court judges, the CAG and the presiding officers of both Houses. Salaries of Union ministers are voted expenditure.
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Q.84
The Directive Principles of State Policy were adopted from the constitution of which country?
- A Australia
- B South Africa
- C Ireland
- D Germany
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Ireland
The Directive Principles, the method of electing the President and nomination of members to Rajya Sabha were borrowed from Ireland. Australia gave the Concurrent List and joint sitting.
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Q.85
National Voters' Day is observed on 25 January every year because on that date in 1950:
- A The first general election began
- B The Election Commission of India was established
- C The Representation of the People Act was passed
- D Universal adult franchise was introduced
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) The Election Commission of India was established
The Election Commission of India was constituted on 25 January 1950, a day before the Constitution came into force, and National Voters' Day has been observed on that date since 2011. India's first general election was held in 1951-52.
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Q.86
Which three words were inserted into the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
- A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
- B Justice, Liberty, Equality
- C Socialist, Secular, Fraternity
- D Socialist, Secular, Integrity
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Socialist, Secular, Integrity
The 42nd Amendment added Socialist and Secular to the description of the Republic and Integrity to the phrase unity and integrity of the Nation. Fraternity was already present in the original Preamble.
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Q.87
Under Article 243B, Panchayats at the intermediate level need not be constituted in a state whose population does not exceed:
- A 10 lakh
- B 20 lakh
- C 25 lakh
- D 50 lakh
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) 20 lakh
Article 243B provides for Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels, but a state with a population not exceeding 20 lakh may do without the intermediate level. This is why some small states have a two-tier system.
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Q.88
Which of the following is NOT an All India Service under Article 312?
- A Indian Administrative Service
- B Indian Police Service
- C Indian Forest Service
- D Indian Foreign Service
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Indian Foreign Service
The IAS and IPS are deemed to have been created by Parliament under Article 312, and the Indian Forest Service was created in 1966; all three serve both the Centre and the states. The Indian Foreign Service is a Central Service, and a new All India Service needs a Rajya Sabha resolution backed by two-thirds of members present and voting.
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Q.89
In I.R. Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after which date can be tested against the basic structure?
- A 18 June 1951
- B 26 January 1950
- C 25 June 1975
- D 24 April 1973
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) 24 April 1973
24 April 1973 is the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment. Coelho held that laws added to the Ninth Schedule after that date do not enjoy blanket immunity and can be struck down if they violate the basic structure.
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Q.90
Consider the following statements about the Preamble: 1. It can be amended under Article 368, provided its basic features are not altered. 2. It is enforceable in a court of law like the Fundamental Rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A Only 1
- B Only 2
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Only 1
In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the Supreme Court held that the Preamble can be amended, but not so as to destroy its basic features. The Preamble is non-justiciable: its provisions cannot be enforced in a court.
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Q.91
In which case did the Supreme Court rule in 1967 that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights, leading to the 24th Amendment?
- A Shankari Prasad case
- B Sajjan Singh case
- C Golaknath case
- D Maneka Gandhi case
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Golaknath case
In Golaknath (1967) the Court held that a constitutional amendment is law under Article 13 and cannot abridge Fundamental Rights. Shankari Prasad (1951) and Sajjan Singh (1965) had earlier upheld Parliament's power.
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Q.92
The 97th Amendment, 2011 added the right to form cooperative societies to which provision of the Constitution?
- A Article 19(1)(g)
- B Article 21
- C Article 19(1)(c)
- D Article 30
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Article 19(1)(c)
The 97th Amendment added 'co-operative societies' to the freedom to form associations and unions in Article 19(1)(c), inserted Directive Principle Article 43B and added Part IXB. In 2021 the Supreme Court confined Part IXB to multi-state cooperative societies, but the change to Article 19(1)(c) stands.
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Q.93
Consider the following statements about the Speaker of the Lok Sabha: 1. The Speaker votes in the first instance on every question, like any other member. 2. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the new House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A Only 1
- B Only 2
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Only 2
The proviso to Article 94 keeps the Speaker in office after dissolution until immediately before the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha. Under Article 100, the Speaker does not vote in the first instance but exercises a casting vote in case of a tie.
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Q.94
Which Constitutional Amendment enabled the President to require the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice once, while making him bound by the advice tendered after such reconsideration?
- A 42nd Amendment, 1976
- B 44th Amendment, 1978
- C 52nd Amendment, 1985
- D 61st Amendment, 1988
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) 44th Amendment, 1978
The 42nd Amendment (1976) made the advice of the Council of Ministers binding on the President, and the 44th Amendment (1978) added a proviso to Article 74(1) allowing him to send the advice back once for reconsideration. The advice given after reconsideration must be accepted.
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Q.95
Consider the following statements: 1. The Swaran Singh Committee recommended eight Fundamental Duties. 2. The 42nd Amendment, 1976 added ten Fundamental Duties to the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A Only 1
- B Only 2
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
The Swaran Singh Committee suggested eight duties, but the 42nd Amendment incorporated ten in Article 51A. The 86th Amendment of 2002 added an eleventh, bringing the total to eleven.
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Q.96
Article 368, which lays down the power and procedure of Parliament to amend the Constitution, is contained in which Part?
- A Part XV
- B Part XVIII
- C Part XX
- D Part XXI
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Part XX
Part XX of the Constitution consists of a single Article, 368, dealing with amendment. Part XV deals with elections and Part XXI with temporary, transitional and special provisions.
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Q.97
Electronic Voting Machines were first used in India in 1982, in some polling stations of the Paravur Assembly constituency of which state?
- A Tamil Nadu
- B Karnataka
- C Goa
- D Kerala
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Kerala
EVMs were first used on an experimental basis in some polling stations of the Paravur (North Paravur) Assembly constituency in Kerala in 1982. Their use was later given legal backing by an amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in 1988.
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Q.98
After the 86th Amendment, 2002, what does Article 45 of the Directive Principles provide for?
- A Early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
- B Free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of 14 years
- C Free legal aid to the poor
- D Participation of workers in the management of industries
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
The 86th Amendment made education for children aged 6 to 14 a Fundamental Right under Article 21A and rewrote Article 45 to cover early childhood care and education for children below six. Free legal aid is in Article 39A and workers' participation in management in Article 43A.
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Q.99
The collegium system for appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts originated from which judgment?
- A Second Judges case (1993)
- B First Judges case (1981)
- C Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
- D Minerva Mills case (1980)
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Second Judges case (1993)
The Second Judges case (Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v Union of India, 1993) gave primacy to the Chief Justice's opinion and created the collegium, which the Third Judges case (1998) expanded to five judges.
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Q.100
The 42nd Amendment of 1976 transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List. Which of the following was NOT among them?
- A Education
- B Police
- C Forests
- D Weights and measures
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Police
The five subjects shifted were education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice. Police and public order remain in the State List.
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How these questions were made
Authored by an AI assistant (Claude) from its own general knowledge of stable, well-established facts (no live lookup) - not reviewed by a subject-matter expert; verify against an official source before relying on any fact.