General Studies

Indian Polity and Constitution: Practice Questions with Answers

238 practice questions on Indian Polity and Constitution, with answers; most also have an explanation or a worked solution. Try each one before you open its answer.

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1. Q.201

   Which Article allows Parliament by law to provide for the adjudication of disputes over inter-state rivers and to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in such disputes?

   1. A Article 131
   2. B Article 262
   3. C Article 263
   4. D Article 280
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   Correct answer: (B) Article 262

   Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide for adjudication of inter-state river water disputes and to bar the Supreme Court and other courts from such disputes. Parliament has done so through the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.

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2. Q.202

   Panchayati Raj based on the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee's recommendations was first inaugurated on 2 October 1959 at Nagaur in which state?

   1. A Andhra Pradesh
   2. B Rajasthan
   3. C Gujarat
   4. D Madhya Pradesh
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   Correct answer: (B) Rajasthan

   Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru inaugurated Panchayati Raj at Nagaur in Rajasthan on 2 October 1959. Andhra Pradesh adopted the system later the same year.

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3. Q.203

   All doubts and disputes arising out of the election of the President or the Vice-President are inquired into and decided by:

   1. A The Supreme Court of India
   2. B The Election Commission of India
   3. C The Parliament
   4. D The High Court of Delhi
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   Correct answer: (A) The Supreme Court of India

   Under Article 71, doubts and disputes about the election of the President or Vice-President are decided only by the Supreme Court, whose decision is final. The Election Commission only conducts these elections (Article 324).

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4. Q.204

   The District Planning Committee, which consolidates the plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities in a district, is provided under:

   1. A Article 243G
   2. B Article 243W
   3. C Article 243ZD
   4. D Article 243ZE
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   Correct answer: (C) Article 243ZD

   Article 243ZD requires every state to constitute a District Planning Committee to consolidate Panchayat and Municipal plans into a draft development plan for the district. Article 243ZE provides for Metropolitan Planning Committees.

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5. Q.205

   Appointments of district judges in a state are made by the Governor in consultation with:

   1. A The Chief Minister
   2. B The State Public Service Commission
   3. C The High Court exercising jurisdiction in that state
   4. D The Chief Justice of India
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   Correct answer: (C) The High Court exercising jurisdiction in that state

   Article 233 provides that district judges are appointed, posted and promoted by the Governor in consultation with the High Court. Appointment of other judicial officers involves both the State Public Service Commission and the High Court (Article 234).

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6. Q.206

   The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is often described as the 'friend, philosopher and guide' of which parliamentary committee?

   1. A Estimates Committee
   2. B Business Advisory Committee
   3. C Committee on Public Undertakings
   4. D Public Accounts Committee
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   Correct answer: (D) Public Accounts Committee

   The CAG's audit reports, submitted to the President under Article 151 and laid before Parliament, are examined by the Public Accounts Committee, which the CAG assists closely. Hence he is called its friend, philosopher and guide.

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7. Q.207

   Which Constitutional Amendment of 1956 implemented the States Reorganisation Act and abolished the classification of states into Parts A, B, C and D?

   1. A 1st Amendment
   2. B 7th Amendment
   3. C 9th Amendment
   4. D 10th Amendment
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   Correct answer: (B) 7th Amendment

   The 7th Amendment Act, 1956 reorganised states largely on linguistic lines into 14 states and 6 Union Territories, ending the A, B, C, D categories. The 9th Amendment (1960) transferred Berubari to Pakistan.

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8. Q.208

   Under Article 164, the Chief Minister of a state is appointed by:

   1. A The Governor
   2. B The President
   3. C The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
   4. D The Chief Justice of the High Court
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   Correct answer: (A) The Governor

   Article 164(1) provides that the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, and the other ministers are appointed by the Governor on the Chief Minister's advice. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.

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9. Q.209

   Consider the following statements about the Vice-President of India: 1. He is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. While acting as President, he continues to perform the duties of Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

   1. A Only 1
   2. B Only 2
   3. C Both 1 and 2
   4. D Neither 1 nor 2
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   Correct answer: (A) Only 1

   Article 64 makes the Vice-President the ex officio Chairman of the Council of States. Under the proviso to Article 64, he does not perform the duties of Chairman while acting as President, and during that period he receives the emoluments of the President (Article 65).

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10. Q.210

    Which of the following was NOT a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

    1. A N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
    2. B Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    3. C Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
    4. D K.M. Munshi
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    Correct answer: (B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

    Besides chairman Dr B.R. Ambedkar, the committee included N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, K.M. Munshi, Syed Mohammad Saadullah, N. Madhava Rau and T.T. Krishnamachari. Sardar Patel was not a member; he chaired other committees of the Assembly.

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11. Q.211

    In the Berubari Union reference (1960), the Supreme Court advised that ceding Indian territory to a foreign country requires:

    1. A An amendment of the Constitution under Article 368
    2. B A law under Article 3 passed by a simple majority
    3. C Only an executive agreement by the Union government
    4. D A resolution of the Rajya Sabha under Article 249
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    Correct answer: (A) An amendment of the Constitution under Article 368

    The Court held that Parliament's power under Article 3 does not extend to ceding territory to a foreign state, so a constitutional amendment is needed. The 9th Amendment, 1960 was enacted to give effect to the India-Pakistan agreement on Berubari.

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12. Q.212

    Which of the following Schedules is correctly matched with its subject?

    1. A Seventh Schedule - Languages
    2. B Fifth Schedule - Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
    3. C Eighth Schedule - Anti-defection provisions
    4. D Tenth Schedule - Union, State and Concurrent Lists
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    Correct answer: (B) Fifth Schedule - Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes

    The Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Languages are in the Eighth Schedule, anti-defection in the Tenth and the legislative lists in the Seventh.

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13. Q.213

    The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a legal right under Article 300A by which amendment?

    1. A 44th Amendment, 1978
    2. B 42nd Amendment, 1976
    3. C 25th Amendment, 1971
    4. D 1st Amendment, 1951
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    Correct answer: (A) 44th Amendment, 1978

    The 44th Amendment of 1978 deleted Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 and inserted Article 300A, making property only a constitutional legal right. The 42nd Amendment did not remove it.

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14. Q.214

    Article 18 abolishes titles, but which of the following is exempted from this prohibition?

    1. A Hereditary titles of former princely families
    2. B Military and academic distinctions
    3. C Titles conferred by foreign states
    4. D Titles of nobility granted before independence
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    Correct answer: (B) Military and academic distinctions

    Article 18 bars the State from conferring any title other than a military or academic distinction, and bars citizens from accepting titles from foreign states. In Balaji Raghavan (1996) the Supreme Court held that national awards such as the Bharat Ratna are not titles.

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15. Q.215

    The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 enabled up to 10 per cent reservation for economically weaker sections by inserting:

    1. A Articles 15(4) and 16(4)
    2. B Articles 15(6) and 16(6)
    3. C Articles 15(5) and 16(4A)
    4. D Articles 338A and 338B
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    Correct answer: (B) Articles 15(6) and 16(6)

    Clauses 15(6) and 16(6) allow up to 10 per cent reservation in education and public employment for economically weaker sections not covered by SC, ST or OBC reservation. Article 15(4) dates from the 1st Amendment (1951) and Article 16(4) from the original Constitution.

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16. Q.216

    How many languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution at present?

    1. A 14
    2. B 18
    3. C 20
    4. D 22
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    Correct answer: (D) 22

    The Eighth Schedule now has 22 languages. It began with 14; Sindhi was added in 1967, Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in 1992, and Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali in 2003.

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17. Q.217

    The provision for suspension of Fundamental Rights during an emergency was borrowed from which constitution?

    1. A Constitution of the USA
    2. B Constitution of Ireland
    3. C Constitution of Japan
    4. D Weimar Constitution of Germany
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    Correct answer: (D) Weimar Constitution of Germany

    Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency comes from the Weimar Constitution of Germany. The emergency provisions as a whole were modelled largely on the Government of India Act, 1935.

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18. Q.218

    The Contingency Fund of India, established under Article 267, is placed at the disposal of:

    1. A The Union Finance Minister
    2. B The Comptroller and Auditor General
    3. C The Lok Sabha
    4. D The President
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    Correct answer: (D) The President

    Article 267 lets Parliament create a Contingency Fund placed at the disposal of the President to meet unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation by Parliament. The Consolidated Fund of India, by contrast, is provided under Article 266.

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19. Q.219

    In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, reversing its earlier view in the Berubari Union case?

    1. A Golaknath case (1967)
    2. B Minerva Mills case (1980)
    3. C A.K. Gopalan case (1950)
    4. D Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
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    Correct answer: (D) Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)

    In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution, though not a source of power. In Berubari Union (1960) it had said the Preamble is not part of the Constitution.

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20. Q.220

    Which Directive Principle directs the State to bring about prohibition of the consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health?

    1. A Article 43
    2. B Article 46
    3. C Article 48
    4. D Article 47
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    Correct answer: (D) Article 47

    Article 47 covers nutrition, the standard of living, public health and prohibition. Article 48 deals with organising agriculture and animal husbandry, including prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves.

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21. Q.221

    Who was the first to put forward the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India, in 1934?

    1. A Jawaharlal Nehru
    2. B M.N. Roy
    3. C Mahatma Gandhi
    4. D C. Rajagopalachari
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    Correct answer: (B) M.N. Roy

    M.N. Roy, a pioneer of the communist movement in India, first proposed a Constituent Assembly in 1934. The Indian National Congress officially adopted the demand in 1935, and Nehru restated it on the Congress's behalf in 1938.

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22. Q.222

    A cut motion that seeks to reduce the amount of a demand for grant to Re 1, expressing disapproval of the policy underlying the demand, is called:

    1. A Economy cut
    2. B Token cut
    3. C Policy cut
    4. D Guillotine
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    Correct answer: (C) Policy cut

    A policy cut reduces the demand to Re 1 to show disapproval of the policy behind it. An economy cut reduces the demand by a specified amount, and a token cut reduces it by Rs 100 to voice a specific grievance.

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23. Q.223

    The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

    1. A All members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members
    2. B Only elected members of both Houses of Parliament
    3. C Elected MPs and elected MLAs of all states
    4. D Members of the Rajya Sabha only
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    Correct answer: (A) All members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members

    Under Article 66, the Vice-President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members; state legislatures play no part. This differs from the Presidential election where nominated members are excluded.

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24. Q.224

    For amendments under Article 368, the 'special majority' required in each House of Parliament is:

    1. A A majority of the total membership of the House and two-thirds of the members present and voting
    2. B Two-thirds of the total membership of the House
    3. C Three-fourths of the members present and voting
    4. D A simple majority of the members present at a joint sitting
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    Correct answer: (A) A majority of the total membership of the House and two-thirds of the members present and voting

    Each House must pass the bill by a majority of its total membership and by at least two-thirds of the members present and voting. Amendments that affect federal provisions additionally need ratification by state legislatures.

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25. Q.225

    A judge of the Supreme Court of India holds office until the age of:

    1. A 62 years
    2. B 65 years
    3. C 60 years
    4. D 70 years
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    Correct answer: (B) 65 years

    Supreme Court judges retire at 65 years, while High Court judges retire at 62 years (raised from 60 by the 15th Amendment, 1963).

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26. Q.226

    An election petition challenging the election of a member of the Lok Sabha is filed, in the first instance, before:

    1. A The Election Commission of India
    2. B The Supreme Court
    3. C The High Court
    4. D The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
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    Correct answer: (C) The High Court

    Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, election petitions concerning Parliament and state legislatures are tried by the High Court, with an appeal to the Supreme Court. Disputes over the election of the President and Vice-President, by contrast, go directly to the Supreme Court.

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27. Q.227

    Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below what age in factories, mines and other hazardous employment?

    1. A 12 years
    2. B 16 years
    3. C 14 years
    4. D 18 years
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    Correct answer: (C) 14 years

    Article 24 bars employing children below 14 years of age in any factory, mine or hazardous work. Article 23 separately prohibits traffic in human beings and begar (forced labour).

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28. Q.228

    Which Article imposes a duty on the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance?

    1. A Article 355
    2. B Article 352
    3. C Article 356
    4. D Article 365
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    Correct answer: (A) Article 355

    Article 355 places this duty on the Union and also requires it to ensure that every state's government is carried on in accordance with the Constitution. Article 365 lets the President treat a state's failure to comply with Union directions as a breakdown of constitutional machinery.

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29. Q.229

    On what ground was the national emergency of 25 June 1975 proclaimed?

    1. A External aggression
    2. B War
    3. C Internal disturbance
    4. D Armed rebellion
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    Correct answer: (C) Internal disturbance

    The 1975 proclamation cited internal disturbance, while an emergency on the ground of external aggression, declared in December 1971, was still in force. The 44th Amendment later replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'.

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30. Q.230

    A separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes under Article 338A was created by which amendment?

    1. A 65th Amendment, 1990
    2. B 89th Amendment, 2003
    3. C 93rd Amendment, 2005
    4. D 102nd Amendment, 2018
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    Correct answer: (B) 89th Amendment, 2003

    The 89th Amendment of 2003 split the combined commission, keeping the NCSC under Article 338 and creating the NCST under Article 338A. The 102nd Amendment gave constitutional status to the NCBC under Article 338B.

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31. Q.231

    The voting age in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by which Constitutional Amendment?

    1. A 52nd Amendment, 1985
    2. B 61st Amendment, 1989
    3. C 62nd Amendment, 1989
    4. D 70th Amendment, 1992
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    Correct answer: (B) 61st Amendment, 1989

    The 61st Amendment Act, 1988 (in force from 1989) amended Article 326 to lower the voting age to 18. The 62nd extended SC/ST reservation in legislatures and the 70th included Delhi and Puducherry in the Presidential electoral college.

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32. Q.232

    Which of the following is NOT a mode of acquiring Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?

    1. A By descent
    2. B By registration
    3. C By purchase of property in India
    4. D By incorporation of territory
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    Correct answer: (C) By purchase of property in India

    The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides five modes: birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory. Owning property in India does not confer citizenship.

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33. Q.233

    Who was elected the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly of India?

    1. A Dr Sachchidananda Sinha
    2. B Dr B.R. Ambedkar
    3. C Dr Rajendra Prasad
    4. D J.B. Kripalani
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    Correct answer: (C) Dr Rajendra Prasad

    Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President of the Constituent Assembly on 11 December 1946. Sachchidananda Sinha was only the temporary chairman of the first sitting.

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34. Q.234

    To be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court, an advocate must have practised in a High Court (or two or more High Courts in succession) for at least:

    1. A 5 years
    2. B 7 years
    3. C 10 years
    4. D 15 years
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    Correct answer: (C) 10 years

    Article 124(3) requires a citizen to have been a High Court judge for at least five years, or a High Court advocate for at least ten years, or to be a distinguished jurist in the President's opinion. For a High Court judge, Article 217 requires ten years of judicial office or ten years as a High Court advocate.

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35. Q.235

    Which of the following Directive Principles is NOT usually classified as a Gandhian principle?

    1. A Organisation of village panchayats (Article 40)
    2. B Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas (Article 43)
    3. C Uniform civil code for citizens (Article 44)
    4. D Promotion of the interests of SCs, STs and weaker sections (Article 46)
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    Correct answer: (C) Uniform civil code for citizens (Article 44)

    Articles 40, 43, 43B, 46, 47 and the ban on cow slaughter in Article 48 reflect Gandhian ideals such as village self-government and cottage industries. The uniform civil code under Article 44 is grouped with the liberal-intellectual principles.

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36. Q.236

    The Governor of a state is appointed by whom and holds office for how long?

    1. A By the Chief Minister, for five years
    2. B By the President, during the pleasure of the President
    3. C By the Parliament, for six years
    4. D By the Chief Justice of the High Court, for five years
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    Correct answer: (B) By the President, during the pleasure of the President

    Under Articles 155 and 156, the Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the President's pleasure; the normal term of five years is subject to this pleasure.

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37. Q.237

    The Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission hold office for six years or until they attain the age of:

    1. A 60 years
    2. B 62 years
    3. C 65 years
    4. D 70 years
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    Correct answer: (B) 62 years

    Under Article 316(2), members of a State Public Service Commission retire at 62, whereas UPSC members retire at 65, in both cases subject to a six-year term. Although appointed by the Governor, SPSC members can be removed only by the President (Article 317).

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38. Q.238

    Under Article 358, which Fundamental Right is automatically suspended when a national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of war or external aggression?

    1. A Article 14
    2. B Article 21
    3. C Article 19
    4. D Article 32
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Article 19

    Article 358 suspends the six freedoms of Article 19 automatically, but since the 44th Amendment only for an emergency declared on the ground of war or external aggression, not armed rebellion. Suspending the enforcement of other rights requires a Presidential order under Article 359.

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