General Studies

Indian Polity and Constitution: Practice Questions with Answers

238 practice questions on Indian Polity and Constitution, with answers; most also have an explanation or a worked solution. Try each one before you open its answer.

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1. Q.151

   Which Article declares that the Directive Principles shall not be enforceable by any court but are fundamental in the governance of the country?

   1. A Article 36
   2. B Article 37
   3. C Article 38
   4. D Article 51
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (B) Article 37

   Article 37 makes the Directive Principles non-justiciable while declaring it the duty of the State to apply them in making laws. Article 36 defines State for Part IV and Article 38 speaks of social order.

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2. Q.152

   Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India: 1. He must be a person qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. 2. He has the right to vote in the Houses of Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

   1. A Only 1
   2. B Only 2
   3. C Both 1 and 2
   4. D Neither 1 nor 2
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   Correct answer: (A) Only 1

   Article 76 requires the Attorney General to be qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court judge. Under Article 88 he may speak in and take part in the proceedings of either House, but he is not entitled to vote.

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3. Q.153

   A member of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after:

   1. A An inquiry by the Supreme Court on a reference by the President
   2. B An address by both Houses of Parliament by special majority
   3. C A recommendation of the Central Vigilance Commission
   4. D An inquiry by a committee headed by the Prime Minister
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (A) An inquiry by the Supreme Court on a reference by the President

   Under Article 317, the President can remove a UPSC chairman or member for misbehaviour only after the Supreme Court, on a reference by the President, holds an inquiry and reports that the member ought to be removed. Grounds such as insolvency or infirmity of mind or body allow removal without such an inquiry.

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4. Q.154

   The idea of a Concurrent List and the provision for a joint sitting of the two Houses were taken from the constitution of:

   1. A Canada
   2. B Australia
   3. C Japan
   4. D France
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   Correct answer: (B) Australia

   The Concurrent List, joint sitting of Parliament and freedom of trade and commerce (Article 301) are borrowed from Australia. Japan gave the phrase procedure established by law.

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5. Q.155

   Article 370, which gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir until 2019, is placed in which Part of the Constitution?

   1. A Part XIX - Miscellaneous
   2. B Part XXI - Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions
   3. C Part XVII - Official Language
   4. D Part XXII - Short title, commencement, authoritative text in Hindi and repeals
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (B) Part XXI - Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions

   Article 370 sits in Part XXI as a temporary provision. Presidential Orders of 5 and 6 August 2019 applied the whole Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir and made the special-status provisions of Article 370 inoperative, a step the Supreme Court upheld in December 2023.

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6. Q.156

   Which Article of the Directive Principles directs the State to organise village panchayats as units of self-government?

   1. A Article 40
   2. B Article 43
   3. C Article 44
   4. D Article 48
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   Correct answer: (A) Article 40

   Article 40 directs the State to organise village panchayats. Article 43 relates to living wage, Article 44 to a uniform civil code and Article 48 to agriculture and animal husbandry.

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7. Q.157

   Under Article 53 of the Constitution, the executive power of the Union is vested in:

   1. A The Prime Minister
   2. B The Union Council of Ministers
   3. C The Cabinet Secretary
   4. D The President
   Show answer

   Correct answer: (D) The President

   Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, to be exercised directly or through subordinate officers. In practice the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister (Article 74).

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8. Q.158

   Which statement correctly compares the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts (Article 226) with that of the Supreme Court (Article 32)?

   1. A Both can issue writs only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights
   2. B High Courts cannot issue writs; only the Supreme Court can
   3. C High Courts can issue writs for Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose, so their jurisdiction is wider
   4. D The Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction is wider as it covers any legal right
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   Correct answer: (C) High Courts can issue writs for Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose, so their jurisdiction is wider

   Article 226 lets High Courts issue writs both for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose (ordinary legal rights), whereas Article 32 is limited to Fundamental Rights. Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right, however.

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9. Q.159

   Which of the following subjects is in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule?

   1. A Agriculture
   2. B Public order
   3. C Banking
   4. D Public health and sanitation
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   Correct answer: (C) Banking

   Banking is an entry in the Union List, along with subjects such as defence, foreign affairs, currency and railways. Agriculture, public order and public health and sanitation are State List subjects.

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10. Q.160

    Provisions relating to citizenship are contained in which Part and Articles of the Constitution?

    1. A Part II, Articles 5 to 11
    2. B Part I, Articles 1 to 4
    3. C Part III, Articles 12 to 35
    4. D Part IV, Articles 36 to 51
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    Correct answer: (A) Part II, Articles 5 to 11

    Part II (Articles 5 to 11) deals with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution and empowers Parliament to legislate on it. Part I covers the Union and its territory, Part III the Fundamental Rights.

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11. Q.161

    Which Constitutional Amendment gave effect to the 1974 Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh, under which enclaves were exchanged in 2015?

    1. A 9th Amendment
    2. B 36th Amendment
    3. C 104th Amendment
    4. D 100th Amendment
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) 100th Amendment

    The 100th Amendment Act, 2015 amended the First Schedule to give effect to the 1974 agreement and its 2011 protocol, leading to the exchange of enclaves between India and Bangladesh. The 9th Amendment of 1960 had dealt with Berubari.

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12. Q.162

    The principle of 'equal pay for equal work for both men and women' is a Directive Principle under:

    1. A Article 41
    2. B Article 39(d)
    3. C Article 42
    4. D Article 43
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    Correct answer: (B) Article 39(d)

    Article 39(d) directs equal pay for equal work for men and women. Article 42 provides for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief, and Article 43 for a living wage.

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13. Q.163

    A resolution of the Rajya Sabha under Article 249, empowering Parliament to make laws on a State List subject in the national interest, must be supported by:

    1. A A simple majority of members present and voting
    2. B Two-thirds of the members present and voting
    3. C A majority of the total membership of the House
    4. D Three-fourths of the members present and voting
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    Correct answer: (B) Two-thirds of the members present and voting

    Article 249 requires such a resolution to be passed by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, and it remains in force for up to one year at a time, renewable. A law made under it ceases to have effect six months after the resolution lapses.

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14. Q.164

    How many freedoms are currently guaranteed to citizens under Article 19(1) of the Constitution?

    1. A Four
    2. B Five
    3. C Seven
    4. D Six
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    Correct answer: (D) Six

    Article 19(1) originally had seven freedoms; the freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property was deleted by the 44th Amendment, leaving six: speech, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.

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15. Q.165

    Sikkim became a full-fledged state of the Indian Union through which Constitutional Amendment?

    1. A 35th Amendment, 1974
    2. B 36th Amendment, 1975
    3. C 38th Amendment, 1975
    4. D 42nd Amendment, 1976
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    Correct answer: (B) 36th Amendment, 1975

    The 35th Amendment (1974) gave Sikkim the status of an 'associate state'. The 36th Amendment (1975) made it a full state, inserted Article 371F and repealed the associate-state provisions.

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16. Q.166

    A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed a Union minister, but ceases to be a minister if he does not become a member within:

    1. A Three months
    2. B Six consecutive months
    3. C One year
    4. D Two years
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) Six consecutive months

    Article 75(5) provides that a minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament ceases to be a minister at the end of that period. A similar rule applies to state ministers under Article 164(4).

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17. Q.167

    The Inter-State Council, which the President may establish to coordinate between the Centre and states, is provided under:

    1. A Article 249
    2. B Article 262
    3. C Article 280
    4. D Article 263
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    Correct answer: (D) Article 263

    Article 263 empowers the President to set up an Inter-State Council; it was established in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's recommendation. Article 262 deals with inter-state river water disputes.

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18. Q.168

    The Indra Sawhney case (1992), also called the Mandal case, is known for which ruling on reservation?

    1. A Reservation should normally not exceed 50 per cent, and the OBC creamy layer must be excluded
    2. B Reservation can be based only on economic criteria
    3. C Reservation in promotions is mandatory for OBCs
    4. D Reservation for OBCs is part of the basic structure
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Reservation should normally not exceed 50 per cent, and the OBC creamy layer must be excluded

    The Court upheld 27 per cent reservation for OBCs in central government jobs but required exclusion of the creamy layer and held that total reservation should normally not exceed 50 per cent. It also held that Article 16(4) does not permit reservation in promotions.

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19. Q.169

    The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution were borrowed mainly from the constitution of which country?

    1. A United States of America
    2. B Britain
    3. C Ireland
    4. D Canada
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    Correct answer: (A) United States of America

    Fundamental Rights, judicial review, independence of the judiciary and impeachment of the President were taken from the US Constitution. Britain gave the parliamentary system and Canada the strong-centre federation.

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20. Q.170

    A dispute between the Government of India and one or more states falls within which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

    1. A Original jurisdiction under Article 131
    2. B Appellate jurisdiction under Article 132
    3. C Advisory jurisdiction under Article 143
    4. D Special leave jurisdiction under Article 136
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    Correct answer: (A) Original jurisdiction under Article 131

    Article 131 gives the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes involving legal rights between the Centre and states or between states. Article 143 covers advisory opinions sought by the President, and Article 136 allows special leave to appeal.

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21. Q.171

    In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court struck down provisions of the 42nd Amendment and held that:

    1. A The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution
    2. B Parliament has unlimited power to amend the Constitution
    3. C Directive Principles always prevail over Fundamental Rights
    4. D Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is part of the basic structure
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    Correct answer: (D) Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is part of the basic structure

    Minerva Mills invalidated clauses (4) and (5) of Article 368 inserted by the 42nd Amendment, which had excluded judicial review of amendments, and held that the balance between Part III and Part IV is a basic feature.

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22. Q.172

    Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and not more than how many members, half of whom must be judicial members?

    1. A Four
    2. B Six
    3. C Eight
    4. D Ten
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Eight

    The Lokpal has a Chairperson and up to eight members, of whom 50 per cent are judicial members, and at least 50 per cent of the members must be from the SC, ST, OBC and minority communities and women. The same Act required states to set up Lokayuktas.

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23. Q.173

    Which Article defines the term 'State' for the purposes of the Fundamental Rights?

    1. A Article 12
    2. B Article 13
    3. C Article 36
    4. D Article 14
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    Correct answer: (A) Article 12

    Article 12 defines 'State' to include the Government and Parliament of India, the government and legislature of each state, and all local or other authorities. Article 36 applies the same meaning to the Directive Principles.

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24. Q.174

    Which of the following subjects is listed in the Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution?

    1. A Minor irrigation
    2. B Fisheries
    3. C Fire services
    4. D Khadi, village and cottage industries
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    Correct answer: (C) Fire services

    The Twelfth Schedule, added by the 74th Amendment, lists 18 functions for Municipalities, including fire services, urban planning and slum improvement. Minor irrigation, fisheries and khadi, village and cottage industries are entries in the Eleventh Schedule for Panchayats.

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25. Q.175

    The Chairperson and members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee headed by:

    1. A The Chief Justice of India
    2. B The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    3. C The Union Home Minister
    4. D The Prime Minister
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) The Prime Minister

    Under Section 4 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the selection committee is headed by the Prime Minister and includes the Lok Sabha Speaker, the Union Home Minister, the Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The NHRC is a statutory body, not a constitutional one.

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26. Q.176

    In a state Legislative Council, what fraction of members is elected by graduates of at least three years' standing?

    1. A One-twelfth
    2. B One-sixth
    3. C One-third
    4. D One-fourth
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) One-twelfth

    Under Article 171, one-third of Council members are elected by local bodies, one-third by MLAs, one-twelfth by graduates, one-twelfth by teachers, and one-sixth are nominated by the Governor.

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27. Q.177

    Which of the following grounds of discrimination is listed in Article 16(2) on public employment but NOT in Article 15(1)?

    1. A Sex
    2. B Place of birth
    3. C Descent
    4. D Caste
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    Correct answer: (C) Descent

    Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Article 16(2), on public employment, adds descent and residence to these grounds.

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28. Q.178

    Under Article 200, the Governor must reserve for the President's consideration a bill which, if it became law, would:

    1. A Derogate from the powers of the High Court so as to endanger its constitutional position
    2. B Increase the salaries of state ministers
    3. C Create a new district in the state
    4. D Impose a new tax on agricultural income
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    Correct answer: (A) Derogate from the powers of the High Court so as to endanger its constitutional position

    The second proviso to Article 200 makes reservation compulsory for a bill that would so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger its constitutional position. In other cases reservation is at the Governor's discretion or as required by specific Articles.

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29. Q.179

    After independence the Constituent Assembly also functioned as the Dominion Legislature. Who presided over it when it met as a legislative body?

    1. A G.V. Mavalankar
    2. B Dr Rajendra Prasad
    3. C Jawaharlal Nehru
    4. D H.C. Mookherjee
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) G.V. Mavalankar

    When the Assembly met as a legislative body it was chaired by G.V. Mavalankar, who later became the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Dr Rajendra Prasad presided when it met as the constitution-making body.

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30. Q.180

    Which of the following Fundamental Rights is available only to citizens of India and not to foreigners?

    1. A Equality before law (Article 14)
    2. B Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)
    3. C Freedom of conscience and religion (Article 25)
    4. D The six freedoms of speech, assembly, movement and others (Article 19)
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) The six freedoms of speech, assembly, movement and others (Article 19)

    Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 are available only to citizens. Articles 14, 21 and 25 are available to all persons, including foreigners.

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31. Q.181

    Consider the following statements: 1. The 'Union of India' includes the union territories. 2. The 'Territory of India' includes the states, the union territories and any territory that India may acquire. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A Only 1
    2. B Only 2
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
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    Correct answer: (B) Only 2

    Under Article 1, the Union of India consists of the states only, while the Territory of India is the wider term covering states, union territories and territories that may be acquired.

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32. Q.182

    After the 44th Amendment, a proclamation of national emergency under Article 352 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within:

    1. A Two months
    2. B Six weeks
    3. C One month
    4. D Six months
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    Correct answer: (C) One month

    The 44th Amendment reduced the period for parliamentary approval from two months to one month and required approval by a special majority. Once approved, the emergency continues for six months at a time.

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33. Q.183

    Residuary powers of legislation, that is, power over subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists, rest with:

    1. A The state legislatures
    2. B The President
    3. C The Parliament
    4. D Both Parliament and state legislatures jointly
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    Correct answer: (C) The Parliament

    Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List vest residuary powers in Parliament, unlike the USA where they lie with the states. This shows the unitary bias of the Indian federation.

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34. Q.184

    Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties: 1. They apply to citizens as well as to foreigners living in India. 2. They are not directly enforceable by the courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A Only 1
    2. B Only 2
    3. C Both 1 and 2
    4. D Neither 1 nor 2
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    Correct answer: (B) Only 2

    The Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens and do not extend to foreigners. Like the Directive Principles they are non-justiciable, though Parliament can enforce them through suitable laws.

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35. Q.185

    The privy purses and privileges of the former rulers of princely states were abolished by which amendment?

    1. A 24th Amendment, 1971
    2. B 25th Amendment, 1971
    3. C 26th Amendment, 1971
    4. D 27th Amendment, 1971
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    Correct answer: (C) 26th Amendment, 1971

    The 26th Amendment Act, 1971 ended the recognition of the former rulers and abolished their privy purses. A 1970 Presidential order to the same effect had been struck down by the Supreme Court.

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36. Q.186

    Which of the following statements about a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368 is correct?

    1. A It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
    2. B It needs the prior permission of the President before introduction
    3. C A deadlock between the two Houses over it is resolved at a joint sitting
    4. D It can be introduced in either House of Parliament, but not in a state legislature
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) It can be introduced in either House of Parliament, but not in a state legislature

    An amendment bill can be introduced in either House, by a minister or a private member, without the President's prior permission. There is no provision for a joint sitting; each House must pass it separately by the required majority.

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37. Q.187

    Which parliamentary device is an informal Indian innovation that is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure?

    1. A Zero Hour
    2. B Half-an-hour discussion
    3. C Short duration discussion
    4. D Calling attention motion
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    Correct answer: (A) Zero Hour

    Zero Hour is an informal practice not provided for in the Rules of Procedure; in the Lok Sabha it follows Question Hour, and members use it to raise matters of public importance. The other devices listed are governed by the Rules of Procedure.

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38. Q.188

    In which case did the Supreme Court strike down a clause of the 39th Amendment, holding that free and fair elections are part of the basic structure?

    1. A Indira Nehru Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975)
    2. B Minerva Mills v Union of India (1980)
    3. C Waman Rao v Union of India (1981)
    4. D S.P. Gupta v Union of India (1981)
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Indira Nehru Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975)

    The 39th Amendment (1975) sought to put the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial scrutiny. In Indira Nehru Gandhi v Raj Narain the Court struck down that clause, treating democracy and free and fair elections as basic features.

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39. Q.189

    The office of the Attorney General of India, the highest law officer of the country, is provided under which Article?

    1. A Article 74
    2. B Article 75
    3. C Article 76
    4. D Article 78
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    Correct answer: (C) Article 76

    Article 76 provides for the Attorney General, appointed by the President and holding office during his pleasure. Article 74 deals with the Council of Ministers and Article 78 with the Prime Minister's duties to the President.

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40. Q.190

    The Goods and Services Tax Council under Article 279A is chaired by:

    1. A The Prime Minister
    2. B The Chairman of the Finance Commission
    3. C The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
    4. D The Union Finance Minister
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) The Union Finance Minister

    Article 279A makes the Union Finance Minister the Chairperson of the GST Council; its other members are the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance and a minister nominated by each state government. The Council makes recommendations to the Union and the states on GST rates and related matters.

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41. Q.191

    The Union Territory of Lakshadweep falls under the jurisdiction of which High Court?

    1. A Madras High Court
    2. B Karnataka High Court
    3. C Bombay High Court
    4. D Kerala High Court
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) Kerala High Court

    Lakshadweep comes under the Kerala High Court at Ernakulam (Kochi). Similarly, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands fall under the Calcutta High Court and Puducherry under the Madras High Court.

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42. Q.192

    Which of the following Directive Principles was added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976?

    1. A Article 40 - organisation of village panchayats
    2. B Article 48A - protection of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife
    3. C Article 44 - uniform civil code
    4. D Article 43 - living wage for workers
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) Article 48A - protection of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife

    The 42nd Amendment added Articles 39A, 43A and 48A and clause (f) of Article 39. Articles 40, 43 and 44 were part of the original Constitution.

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43. Q.193

    Lok Adalats were given statutory status under which Act?

    1. A Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
    2. B Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008
    3. C Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999
    4. D Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

    The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gave Lok Adalats statutory status, and an award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court against which no appeal lies. The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 set up village-level courts.

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44. Q.194

    The Directive Principle asking the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens is contained in:

    1. A Article 39A
    2. B Article 41
    3. C Article 44
    4. D Article 47
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Article 44

    Article 44 provides for a uniform civil code throughout India. Article 39A deals with free legal aid, Article 41 with right to work and education, and Article 47 with nutrition, public health and prohibition.

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45. Q.195

    Under Article 171, the total number of members of a state Legislative Council shall not exceed what fraction of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly, and shall not be less than 40?

    1. A One-fourth
    2. B One-third
    3. C One-half
    4. D Two-thirds
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) One-third

    Article 171(1) caps the Legislative Council at one-third of the Assembly's total strength, with a minimum of 40 members. Within these limits the actual strength of each Council is fixed by Parliament by law.

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46. Q.196

    Under Article 169, a Legislative Council in a state can be created or abolished by:

    1. A The Governor by an ordinance
    2. B The President by an order
    3. C The state Legislative Assembly alone by a simple majority
    4. D Parliament by law, after the state Assembly passes a resolution by special majority
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) Parliament by law, after the state Assembly passes a resolution by special majority

    Parliament creates or abolishes a Legislative Council by an ordinary law, but only after the state Legislative Assembly passes a resolution by a special majority. Such a law is not deemed a constitutional amendment.

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47. Q.197

    After the 44th Amendment, the enforcement of which two Articles cannot be suspended by a Presidential order even during a national emergency?

    1. A Articles 14 and 15
    2. B Articles 19 and 21
    3. C Articles 20 and 21
    4. D Articles 32 and 226
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (C) Articles 20 and 21

    Article 359 as amended in 1978 bars suspension of the rights under Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction) and Article 21 (life and personal liberty) during an emergency. Article 19 is suspended automatically only in case of war or external aggression.

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48. Q.198

    A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament under Article 108 is presided over by:

    1. A The President of India
    2. B The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    3. C The Vice-President as Chairman of Rajya Sabha
    4. D The senior-most member of Parliament
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

    The Speaker presides over a joint sitting; in the Speaker's absence the Deputy Speaker, and then the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha. The President summons the joint sitting but does not preside.

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49. Q.199

    The basic structure doctrine, which limits Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, was laid down by a 13-judge bench in:

    1. A Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973)
    2. B Golaknath v State of Punjab (1967)
    3. C Shankari Prasad v Union of India (1951)
    4. D Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975)
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (A) Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973)

    In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the largest-ever bench held by 7 to 6 that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution but cannot destroy its basic structure. Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain applied the doctrine to strike down a clause of the 39th Amendment.

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50. Q.200

    Which Article of the Constitution empowers Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law?

    1. A Article 5
    2. B Article 9
    3. C Article 10
    4. D Article 11
    Show answer

    Correct answer: (D) Article 11

    Article 11 empowers Parliament to make any provision on the acquisition and termination of citizenship; under it Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955. Articles 5 to 10 deal with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.

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