Pariksha SaathiGeneral Studies
Indian Polity and Constitution: Practice Questions with Answers
238 practice questions on Indian Polity and Constitution, with answers; most also have an explanation or a worked solution. Try each one before you open its answer.
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Q.101
The allocation of seats to states and union territories in the Rajya Sabha is laid down in which Schedule?
- A Fourth Schedule
- B First Schedule
- C Third Schedule
- D Seventh Schedule
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Fourth Schedule
The Fourth Schedule allocates Rajya Sabha seats, broadly on the basis of population, so it changes whenever states are created or reorganised. The Seventh Schedule contains the Union, State and Concurrent Lists.
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Q.102
The States Reorganisation Commission of 1953, whose report led to the reorganisation of states in 1956, was headed by:
- A S.K. Dhar
- B K.M. Panikkar
- C Fazl Ali
- D H.N. Kunzru
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Fazl Ali
The commission was chaired by Fazl Ali, with K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru as members. S.K. Dhar had headed the Linguistic Provinces Commission of 1948.
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Q.103
If the offices of both the President and the Vice-President fall vacant at the same time, who discharges the functions of the President under the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969?
- A The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- B The Prime Minister
- C The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
- D The Chief Justice of India
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) The Chief Justice of India
The President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969 provides that the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior-most available Supreme Court judge, discharges the President's functions. This happened in 1969, when Chief Justice M. Hidayatullah acted as President.
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Q.104
The Ninth Schedule, which protects listed laws (mainly land reforms) from judicial review, was added by which Constitutional Amendment?
- A 1st Amendment, 1951
- B 7th Amendment, 1956
- C 24th Amendment, 1971
- D 42nd Amendment, 1976
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) 1st Amendment, 1951
The 1st Amendment Act of 1951 added the Ninth Schedule along with Article 31B. The 7th Amendment reorganised states and the 24th restored Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights.
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Q.105
The Advocate General, the highest law officer of a state, is appointed by the Governor under which Article?
- A Article 76
- B Article 148
- C Article 165
- D Article 217
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Article 165
Article 165 provides for the Advocate General of a state, appointed by the Governor and holding office during his pleasure; he must be qualified to be appointed a High Court judge. Article 76 is the corresponding provision for the Attorney General of India.
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Q.106
Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is correctly matched with its source?
- A Fundamental Duties - USA
- B Judicial review - Ireland
- C Rule of law - Britain
- D Concurrent List - Canada
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Rule of law - Britain
Rule of law, along with parliamentary government, legislative procedure and the prerogative writs, comes from Britain. Fundamental Duties came from the former USSR, judicial review from the USA and the Concurrent List from Australia.
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Q.107
The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of tribal areas through autonomous district councils in which four states?
- A Assam, Nagaland, Manipur and Tripura
- B Meghalaya, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim
- C Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Assam
- D Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, which are administered through autonomous district and regional councils with legislative and judicial powers.
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Q.108
In which case did a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court declare the right to privacy a Fundamental Right in 2017?
- A M.P. Sharma v Satish Chandra
- B Kharak Singh v State of U.P.
- C Navtej Singh Johar v Union of India
- D Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India
In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) the Court held privacy to be intrinsic to Article 21 and the freedoms of Part III, overruling M.P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962) on this point. Navtej Singh Johar (2018) concerned Section 377 of the IPC.
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Q.109
After the 44th Amendment, if one-tenth of the total members of the Lok Sabha give written notice, a special sitting must be held within 14 days to consider a resolution for:
- A Removing the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- B Impeaching the President
- C Extending President's Rule in a state
- D Disapproving the continuation of a national emergency
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Disapproving the continuation of a national emergency
The 44th Amendment lets one-tenth of Lok Sabha members seek such a special sitting, and the Lok Sabha can end a national emergency by passing a disapproval resolution by a simple majority.
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Q.110
Who decides whether a bill is a money bill under Article 110, and for how many days can the Rajya Sabha hold it?
- A The President; 30 days
- B The Chairman of Rajya Sabha; 14 days
- C The Speaker of Lok Sabha; 14 days
- D The Finance Minister; 21 days
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) The Speaker of Lok Sabha; 14 days
The Speaker's certificate that a bill is a money bill is final. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject.
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Q.111
Which statement about the Rajya Sabha is correct?
- A It is a permanent House and one-third of its members retire every two years
- B It is dissolved every six years and fresh elections are held
- C Its members are elected directly by the people for six years
- D Half of its members retire every three years
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) It is a permanent House and one-third of its members retire every two years
The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber that is never dissolved; members serve six-year terms and one-third retire every second year. They are elected indirectly by elected MLAs by proportional representation.
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Q.112
Which of the following provisions came into force on 26 November 1949 itself, ahead of the rest of the Constitution?
- A Provisions relating to citizenship
- B Fundamental Rights
- C Directive Principles of State Policy
- D Emergency provisions
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Provisions relating to citizenship
Article 394 brought provisions on citizenship, elections, the provisional Parliament, temporary and transitional provisions and the short title (such as Articles 5 to 9, 324 and 393) into force on 26 November 1949. The remaining provisions commenced on 26 January 1950.
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Q.113
The Central Vigilance Commission, set up in 1964 by an executive resolution, received statutory status through an Act passed in:
- A 1988
- B 1993
- C 2003
- D 2013
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) 2003
The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 gave the CVC statutory status as a multi-member body of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners. Earlier, in 1998, it had been given statutory status by an ordinance.
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Q.114
The Election Commission of India is established under which Article, and who was its first Chief Election Commissioner?
- A Article 324; Sukumar Sen
- B Article 324; T.N. Seshan
- C Article 326; K.V.K. Sundaram
- D Article 315; Sukumar Sen
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Article 324; Sukumar Sen
Article 324 vests superintendence of elections in the Election Commission, set up on 25 January 1950. Sukumar Sen was the first CEC; Article 326 deals with adult suffrage and Article 315 with Public Service Commissions.
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Q.115
Which of the following liberties is NOT mentioned in the Preamble?
- A Liberty of thought
- B Liberty of belief
- C Liberty of occupation
- D Liberty of worship
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Liberty of occupation
The Preamble secures liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. Freedom to practise any profession or carry on any occupation is a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(g), not part of the Preamble.
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Q.116
According to Article 79, the Parliament of India consists of:
- A The President, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha
- B The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only
- C The President, the Vice-President and the Lok Sabha
- D The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the Council of Ministers
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) The President, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha
Article 79 states that Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The President is not a member of either House but is an integral part of Parliament, since no bill becomes law without his assent.
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Q.117
The Rajamannar Committee, set up in 1969 to examine Centre-State relations, was appointed by:
- A The Government of India
- B The Inter-State Council
- C The Government of West Bengal
- D The Government of Tamil Nadu
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) The Government of Tamil Nadu
The Tamil Nadu government appointed the Rajamannar Committee in 1969 to suggest ways of strengthening state autonomy. The Sarkaria Commission (1983) and the Punchhi Commission (2007) were appointed by the Government of India.
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Q.118
Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 a Fundamental Right, was inserted by which amendment?
- A 42nd Amendment, 1976
- B 44th Amendment, 1978
- C 73rd Amendment, 1992
- D 86th Amendment, 2002
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) 86th Amendment, 2002
The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, amended Article 45 to cover early childhood care and added the eleventh Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k).
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Q.119
Under Article 243Q, a Nagar Panchayat is constituted for:
- A A larger urban area
- B A smaller urban area
- C An area in transition from a rural area to an urban area
- D A cantonment area
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) An area in transition from a rural area to an urban area
Article 243Q provides for a Nagar Panchayat for a transitional area, a Municipal Council for a smaller urban area and a Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area. Cantonment boards are governed by a separate central law.
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Q.120
The Supreme Court of India, established under Article 124, was inaugurated on:
- A 26 November 1949
- B 26 January 1950
- C 28 January 1950
- D 15 August 1950
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) 28 January 1950
The Supreme Court was inaugurated on 28 January 1950, two days after the Constitution came into force, and replaced the Federal Court of India. It first sat in the Chamber of Princes in the Parliament House.
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Q.121
On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, which of the following bills does NOT lapse?
- A A bill pending in the Lok Sabha
- B A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha
- C A bill introduced in the Rajya Sabha and pending there, not yet passed by the Lok Sabha
- D A bill passed by the Rajya Sabha and pending in the Lok Sabha
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) A bill introduced in the Rajya Sabha and pending there, not yet passed by the Lok Sabha
Under Article 107(5), a bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that the Lok Sabha has not passed survives dissolution, because the Rajya Sabha is never dissolved. Bills pending in the Lok Sabha, or passed by it and pending in the Rajya Sabha, lapse.
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Q.122
Elections to Panchayats are superintended, directed and controlled by:
- A The State Election Commission
- B The Election Commission of India
- C The District Collector
- D The State Government
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) The State Election Commission
Article 243K vests the conduct of Panchayat elections in a State Election Commission, headed by a State Election Commissioner appointed by the Governor and removable only like a High Court judge. Article 243ZA gives the same body charge of municipal elections.
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Q.123
The President of India may resign from office by writing under his hand addressed to:
- A The Chief Justice of India
- B The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- C The Prime Minister
- D The Vice-President of India
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) The Vice-President of India
Under Article 56(1)(a), the President resigns by writing addressed to the Vice-President, who must at once communicate it to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Vice-President, in turn, addresses his resignation to the President (Article 67).
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Q.124
The forms of oaths and affirmations for Union ministers, Members of Parliament and judges of the Supreme Court are given in which Schedule?
- A Second Schedule
- B Fourth Schedule
- C Third Schedule
- D Sixth Schedule
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Third Schedule
The Third Schedule contains these forms. The oaths of the President and the Vice-President, however, are laid down in Articles 60 and 69 themselves.
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Q.125
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India been amended so far?
- A Never
- B Once
- C Twice
- D Three times
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Once
The Preamble has been amended only once, by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. The 44th Amendment of 1978 reversed many emergency-era changes but left the Preamble untouched.
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Q.126
Which committee, in 1957, recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system of gram panchayat, panchayat samiti and zila parishad?
- A Ashok Mehta Committee
- B Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
- C L.M. Singhvi Committee
- D G.V.K. Rao Committee
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended democratic decentralisation through three tiers; Rajasthan became the first state to implement it at Nagaur on 2 October 1959.
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Q.127
The National Judicial Appointments Commission, created by the 99th Constitutional Amendment of 2014, was struck down by the Supreme Court in:
- A 2014
- B 2015
- C 2016
- D 2018
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) 2015
In October 2015, a five-judge bench in the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association case (often called the Fourth Judges case) declared the 99th Amendment and the NJAC Act unconstitutional. As a result, the collegium system was restored.
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Q.128
Which statement about a financial emergency under Article 360 is correct?
- A It must be approved by Parliament within one month and lasts six months at a time
- B Once approved by Parliament, it continues until revoked, with no maximum period
- C It can be proclaimed only at the request of a state government
- D It cannot be used to reduce the salaries of Supreme Court judges
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Once approved by Parliament, it continues until revoked, with no maximum period
Once Parliament approves a financial emergency, it stays in force until the President revokes it, with no upper limit on its duration. During it the President can direct a reduction in the salaries of all government servants, including Supreme Court and High Court judges.
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Q.129
Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added to the Eighth Schedule by which amendment?
- A 71st Amendment, 1992
- B 92nd Amendment, 2003
- C 21st Amendment, 1967
- D 96th Amendment, 2011
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) 92nd Amendment, 2003
The 92nd Amendment of 2003 added these four languages, taking the total to 22. The 71st Amendment added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali, the 21st added Sindhi, and the 96th replaced Oriya with Odia.
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Q.130
What is the minimum age for a person to be qualified for election as a member of a Panchayat under Article 243F?
- A 18 years
- B 21 years
- C 25 years
- D 30 years
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) 21 years
Article 243F applies the disqualifications for state legislature elections to Panchayats, but provides that no one shall be disqualified for being under 25 if he has attained 21 years. So the minimum age for a Panchayat member is 21.
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Q.131
The Constituent Assembly of India was constituted in 1946 under the scheme formulated by:
- A Cripps Mission, 1942
- B Wavell Plan, 1945
- C Mountbatten Plan, 1947
- D Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme of the Cabinet Mission Plan. The Cripps Mission of 1942 had only promised an elected constitution-making body after the war, and the Mountbatten Plan of June 1947 dealt with partition.
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Q.132
Which of the following is NOT a part of the electoral college that elects the President of India?
- A Elected members of the Lok Sabha
- B Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
- C Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi
- D Elected members of state Legislative Assemblies
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
Only elected members of both Houses of Parliament and of the Legislative Assemblies of states and of the UTs of Delhi and Puducherry vote in the Presidential election. Nominated members and Legislative Council members are excluded.
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Q.133
Under Article 368, an amendment affecting federal provisions such as the election of the President or the Seventh Schedule needs, besides a special majority in Parliament, ratification by:
- A All the state legislatures
- B Legislatures of not less than half of the states
- C Legislatures of two-thirds of the states
- D The Inter-State Council
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Legislatures of not less than half of the states
Such amendments must be ratified by the legislatures of at least one-half of the states by a simple majority before the bill is presented to the President. There is no time limit for ratification.
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Q.134
The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly, set up on 29 August 1947, was chaired by whom?
- A Jawaharlal Nehru
- B B.N. Rau
- C K.M. Munshi
- D Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Dr B.R. Ambedkar chaired the seven-member Drafting Committee. B.N. Rau was the Constitutional Adviser, not a member of the committee, and K.M. Munshi was one of its members.
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Q.135
The Zonal Councils, set up to promote cooperation among states, were created under:
- A Article 263 of the Constitution
- B The States Reorganisation Act, 1956
- C The Government of India Act, 1935
- D A resolution of the National Development Council
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) The States Reorganisation Act, 1956
The five Zonal Councils (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) are statutory bodies created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, each chaired by the Union Home Minister. The North Eastern Council was set up separately by an Act of 1971.
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Q.136
Article 325 of the Constitution provides for:
- A A single general electoral roll for each constituency, with no exclusion on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex
- B Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
- C Elections on the basis of adult suffrage
- D A bar on interference by courts in electoral matters
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) A single general electoral roll for each constituency, with no exclusion on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex
Article 325 provides one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency and forbids exclusion from it on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex, which ended separate communal electorates. Article 326 provides for adult suffrage, Article 330 for SC/ST reservation in the Lok Sabha and Article 329 bars courts from interfering in electoral matters.
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Q.137
The 44th Amendment replaced the words internal disturbance in Article 352 as a ground for national emergency with:
- A Civil war
- B Armed rebellion
- C Internal aggression
- D Breakdown of law and order
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Armed rebellion
The 44th Amendment of 1978 substituted armed rebellion for internal disturbance so that a national emergency cannot be declared on vague grounds, as happened in 1975.
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Q.138
Persons nominated by the Governor to a state Legislative Council may have special knowledge in a field that is NOT listed for the President's nominations to the Rajya Sabha. Which field is it?
- A Literature
- B Art
- C Co-operative movement
- D Social service
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Co-operative movement
Article 171(5) lists literature, science, art, co-operative movement and social service for the one-sixth of Council members nominated by the Governor. Article 80(3), for the Rajya Sabha, names only literature, science, art and social service.
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Q.139
Under Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:
- A The President
- B The Rajya Sabha
- C Both Houses of Parliament
- D The Lok Sabha
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) The Lok Sabha
Article 75(3) makes the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). That is why a government that loses a no-confidence vote in the Lok Sabha must resign, while a defeat in the Rajya Sabha does not have this effect.
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Q.140
Which financial committee of Parliament consists entirely of members of the Lok Sabha?
- A Public Accounts Committee
- B Estimates Committee
- C Committee on Public Undertakings
- D Departmentally Related Standing Committee on Finance
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Estimates Committee
The Estimates Committee has 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha, and examines the estimates included in the budget; it is often called a continuous economy committee. The Public Accounts Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings each have 15 Lok Sabha and 7 Rajya Sabha members.
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Q.141
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President every five years under which Article, and who chaired the first Finance Commission?
- A Article 263; K.C. Pant
- B Article 275; Y.B. Chavan
- C Article 282; K. Santhanam
- D Article 280; K.C. Neogy
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Article 280; K.C. Neogy
Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission of a chairman and four members to recommend tax devolution between Centre and states. The first Finance Commission (1951) was chaired by K.C. Neogy.
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Q.142
In what order do the words describing India appear in the Preamble as it stands today?
- A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
- B Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
- C Socialist, Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic
- D Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Secular Republic
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
The Preamble resolves to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic. Before the 42nd Amendment of 1976 the phrase read Sovereign Democratic Republic.
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Q.143
Under Article 280, the Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and how many other members?
- A Two
- B Three
- C Four
- D Five
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Four
Article 280(1) provides for a Finance Commission of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President, and Parliament has prescribed their qualifications in the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951. The Commission recommends how taxes are shared between the Centre and the states.
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Q.144
The Ashok Mehta Committee of 1977 recommended which structure for Panchayati Raj?
- A Three-tier system with gram sabha at the base
- B Single-tier system of district councils
- C Four-tier system including the village level
- D Two-tier system of zila parishad and mandal panchayat
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) Two-tier system of zila parishad and mandal panchayat
The Ashok Mehta Committee proposed replacing the three-tier system with a two-tier one: zila parishad at the district level and mandal panchayat for a group of villages. It also favoured political parties participating in panchayat elections.
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Q.145
Which of the following is a constitutional body?
- A National Human Rights Commission
- B Central Vigilance Commission
- C Central Information Commission
- D National Commission for Backward Classes
Show answer
Correct answer: (D) National Commission for Backward Classes
The 102nd Amendment of 2018 inserted Article 338B and gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes. The NHRC, CVC and Central Information Commission are statutory bodies created by Acts of Parliament.
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Q.146
The Constitution of India, as originally adopted in 1949, contained how many Articles, Parts and Schedules?
- A 444 Articles, 25 Parts, 12 Schedules
- B 395 Articles, 24 Parts, 10 Schedules
- C 395 Articles, 22 Parts, 8 Schedules
- D 448 Articles, 22 Parts, 12 Schedules
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) 395 Articles, 22 Parts, 8 Schedules
The original Constitution had 395 Articles in 22 Parts and 8 Schedules. Today it has 25 Parts and 12 Schedules because of later amendments.
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Q.147
Which Constitutional Amendment made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill?
- A 24th Amendment, 1971
- B 25th Amendment, 1971
- C 42nd Amendment, 1976
- D 44th Amendment, 1978
Show answer
Correct answer: (A) 24th Amendment, 1971
The 24th Amendment, passed after the Golaknath judgment, affirmed Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, and made Presidential assent to amendment bills mandatory. The 25th Amendment (1971) dealt with property and inserted Article 31C.
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Q.148
The Objectives Resolution, on which the Preamble is based, was moved in the Constituent Assembly on 13 December 1946 by:
- A Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
- B Jawaharlal Nehru
- C Dr Rajendra Prasad
- D Dr B.R. Ambedkar
Show answer
Correct answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946; it was adopted on 22 January 1947 and its ideals were later written into the Preamble.
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Q.149
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established under which law?
- A Article 338 of the Constitution
- B Right to Information Act, 2005
- C Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
- D Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
The NHRC is a statutory body set up in October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993; it is not a constitutional body. The same Act provides for State Human Rights Commissions.
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Q.150
The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution lists how many functional subjects for Panchayats?
- A 18
- B 22
- C 29
- D 32
Show answer
Correct answer: (C) 29
The Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment, contains 29 subjects for Panchayats. The Twelfth Schedule, added by the 74th Amendment, has 18 subjects for municipalities.
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How these questions were made
Authored by an AI assistant (Claude) from its own general knowledge of stable, well-established facts (no live lookup) - not reviewed by a subject-matter expert; verify against an official source before relying on any fact.