Pariksha SaathiRRB Group D 2025: exam pattern, marks, negative marking, age limit
Every figure on this page is copied from an official document linked next to it, with the date we last checked it. Pattern, age limit and dates are from the CEN 09/2025 (Level 1) notification. Last verified: 15 October 2026.
At a glance
- Selection stages
- Computer Based Test (CBT) → Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
- First stage: Questions / Marks / Time
- 100 / 100 / 90 min
- Negative marking
- One-third (1/3) of a mark is deducted for each wrong answer.
- First stage dates
- 3 August 2026 to 25 August 2026
- Tentative vacancies
- 22,195 (as on 31 January 2026)
Weekly live mock: Sunday, 8 November 2026, 10:00–12:00 IST · 50 questions in 60 minutes, one paper for everyone · Sit it in the Android app →
Exam pattern
Computer Based Test (CBT)
Applies to: All posts
CBT
| Section | Questions | Marks each | Marks | Time (min) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| General Science | 25 | 1 | 25 | — |
| Mathematics | 25 | 1 | 25 | — |
| General Intelligence and Reasoning | 30 | 1 | 30 | — |
| General Awareness and Current Affairs | 20 | 1 | 20 | — |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 90 |
Time allowed: 90 minutes. 120 minutes for candidates who are eligible for a scribe. Negative marking: One-third (1/3) of a mark is deducted for each wrong answer.
- Objective multiple-choice questions. The notice says the subject-wise split is only indicative, so the actual paper may vary a little.
- Candidates are called for the PET on their CBT merit, at three times the community-wise vacancies (the Railways may raise or lower this ratio).
- The notice keeps the right to treat this CBT as a qualifying test, if a second-stage CBT is held for shortlisting.
- When the CBT is held in several sessions, marks are normalised before shortlisting.
Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
Applies to: All posts
Physical Efficiency Test
This part is qualifying only: it does not add to the merit score.
- Male candidates: lift and carry 35 kg for 100 metres in 2 minutes in one chance without putting the weight down, and run 1000 metres in 4 minutes 15 seconds in one chance.
- Female candidates: lift and carry 20 kg for 100 metres in 2 minutes in one chance without putting the weight down, and run 1000 metres in 5 minutes 40 seconds in one chance. Transgender candidates are tested to the female standard.
- The weight-carrying test comes first; failing it ends the PET. The run follows after a recovery gap.
- Exempt from the PET: PwBD candidates (they must pass the PwBD medical examination), Course Completed Act Apprentices and ex-servicemen.
- After the CBT and PET, candidates equal to the notified vacancies (1:1) are called for document verification; a medical examination follows.
Source: Centralised Employment Notification (CEN) No. 09/2025: Recruitment for Various Posts in Level 1 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix (published 31 January 2026, with Corrigenda 1 to 5) ↗ · Last verified: 15 October 2026 (If it shows “Request Rejected”, open rrb.indianrailways.gov.in first, then the link again.) · Report an error
Free RRB Group D mock tests in this official pattern →
Syllabus: subjects tested
The subjects in short, as the official syllabus lists them. The exam body's own notification is final.
- Mathematics
- Number system, BODMAS, decimals, fractions, LCM and HCF, ratio and proportion, percentages, mensuration, time and work, time and distance, simple and compound interest, profit and loss, algebra, geometry and trigonometry, elementary statistics, square root, age calculations, calendar and clock, and pipes and cistern.
- General Intelligence and Reasoning
- Analogies, alphabetical and number series, coding and decoding, mathematical operations, relationships, syllogism, jumbling, Venn diagram, data interpretation and sufficiency, conclusions and decision making, similarities and differences, analytical reasoning, classification, directions, and statement-arguments and assumptions.
- General Science
- Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences at 10th standard (CBSE) level.
- General Awareness and Current Affairs
- Current affairs in science and technology, sports, culture, personalities, economics and politics, and any other subject of importance. A daily current-affairs habit pays off directly here.
Full syllabus, stage by stage → · Official website ↗
Age limit and qualification
18 to 33 years as on 1 January 2026. The upper limit is relaxed by 5 years for SC and ST and by 3 years for OBC (non-creamy layer); relaxations for ex-servicemen, PwBD, serving railway staff, Course Completed Act Apprentices and others are listed in para 5.2 of the notice. Age is counted as on 1 January 2026.
| Posts | Requirement |
|---|---|
| All Level 1 posts (14 post categories in Annexure A) | 10th pass, or ITI, or equivalent, or a National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC) granted by NCVT. |
| Medical standard, by post | Pointsman B: A-2. Assistant Track Machine: A-3. Assistant Operations (Electrical, Workshop) and Assistant (S and T, Workshop): C-1. All other posts: B-1. Vision standards are in para 3.0 of the notice. |
Minimum percentage of marks in the CBT for shortlisting: UR and EWS 40%, OBC (non-creamy layer) 30%, SC 30%, ST 30%. The notice allows a 2-mark relaxation for PwBD candidates if there are too few of them for the reserved vacancies.
Source: Centralised Employment Notification (CEN) No. 09/2025: Recruitment for Various Posts in Level 1 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix (published 31 January 2026, with Corrigenda 1 to 5) ↗ · Last verified: 15 October 2026 (If it shows “Request Rejected”, open rrb.indianrailways.gov.in first, then the link again.) · Report an error
Important dates
| Event | Date | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Indicative notice in Employment News | 27 December 2025 | official notice ↗ |
| Online applications (closing date extended by Corrigendum 4) | 31 January 2026 to 9 March 2026 | official notice ↗ |
| Last date for application fee payment (as revised) | 11 March 2026 | official notice ↗ |
| Application modification window (as revised) | 12 March 2026 to 21 March 2026 | official notice ↗ |
| Computer Based Test (tentative schedule notified on 30 July 2026) | 3 to 6, 9 to 14, 17 to 21 and 25 August 2026 (16 exam days, tentative) | official notice ↗ |
| PET, document verification and medical examination | Dates not announced yet. The notice says they will be intimated through the RRC/RRB websites. | official notice ↗ |
Source: Centralised Employment Notification (CEN) No. 09/2025: Recruitment for Various Posts in Level 1 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix (published 31 January 2026, with Corrigenda 1 to 5) ↗ · Last verified: 15 October 2026 (If it shows “Request Rejected”, open rrb.indianrailways.gov.in first, then the link again.) · Report an error
Source: Tentative vacancies ↗ · Last verified: 15 October 2026 (If it shows “Request Rejected”, open rrb.indianrailways.gov.in first, then the link again.) · Report an error
Practice questions by section
Free questions, each with its answer, in the subjects this exam tests. Every topic opens a list of question pages.
Quantitative Aptitude
- Geometry: Lines and Triangles 24 questions
- Number System 21 questions
- Percentage 21 questions
- Trigonometry 20 questions
- Boat and Stream 19 questions
- Mensuration: 2D 16 questions
- Permutation and Combination 15 questions
- Probability — Tier II 15 questions
Reasoning
- Syllogism 115 questions
- Blood Relations 89 questions
- Coding-Decoding 88 questions
- Analogy 39 questions
- Direction Sense 38 questions
- Seating Arrangement 29 questions
- Calendar 19 questions
- Clock 19 questions
General Studies
- General Science 480 questions
- Static General Knowledge 240 questions
- Indian Geography 239 questions
- Physical and World Geography 239 questions
- Indian Polity and Constitution 238 questions
- Environment and Ecology 237 questions
- Modern Indian History and Freedom Struggle 235 questions
- Indian Art and Culture 234 questions
All practice questions by topic →
Free notes (PDF)
Notes for every topic in this exam’s syllabus, one PDF per subject: each lesson ends with a quick-revision box, and each PDF ends with a revision sheet. Written by an AI assistant and not reviewed by a subject-matter expert.
- Quantitative Aptitude (89 pages, 1.1 MB)
- Reasoning (74 pages, 954 KB)
- General Awareness (208 pages, 2.3 MB)
Latest notices
- RRB Group D (CEN 09/2025): window for railway-trained Act Apprentices to enter NCVT marks, 22 to 28 October 2026deadline · 19 October 2026
RRB Group D admit card, result and answer key: every notice →
Recent current affairs for this exam
- Indian Navy frees hijacked fishing vessel 'Azini' from armed pirates off Somalia; all 20 crew members safe3 November 2026
- 5th edition of India-US tri-service HADR exercise Tiger Triumph opens at Visakhapatnam; an NDRF team to take part for the first time3 November 2026
- Aditya-L1's VELC shows a solar eruption expanded asymmetrically, not like a simple symmetric bubble: IIA study3 November 2026
- Health Ministry proposes amending Rule 43A of the Drugs Rules, 1945 to add ICDs, an SEZ and Noida International Airport as authorised import gateways3 November 2026
- TRAI releases Telecommunication Interconnection (Third Amendment) Regulations, 2026: shift to LSA-level and IP-based interconnection, effective 1 January 20273 November 2026
Prepare
- Exam calendar: official dates across every exam
- Syllabus and subjects tested
- Job profile and salary
- Free lessons
- Start practising
Frequently asked questions
What are the selection stages of RRB Group D?
Computer Based Test (CBT) → Physical Efficiency Test (PET), as per the CEN 09/2025 (Level 1) notification.
How many questions are in the RRB Group D first stage?
Computer Based Test (CBT): 100 questions for 100 marks in 90 minutes, as per the CEN 09/2025 (Level 1) notification.
Is there negative marking in RRB Group D?
Computer Based Test (CBT), as per the CEN 09/2025 (Level 1) notification: One-third (1/3) of a mark is deducted for each wrong answer.
Which parts of the RRB Group D exam are qualifying?
As per the CEN 09/2025 (Level 1) notification, these are qualifying: Physical Efficiency Test (PET): Physical Efficiency Test.
What is the age limit for RRB Group D?
18 to 33 years as on 1 January 2026. The upper limit is relaxed by 5 years for SC and ST and by 3 years for OBC (non-creamy layer); relaxations for ex-servicemen, PwBD, serving railway staff, Course Completed Act Apprentices and others are listed in para 5.2 of the notice. Age is counted as on 1 January 2026.
What are the minimum qualifying marks in RRB Group D?
Minimum percentage of marks in the CBT for shortlisting: UR and EWS 40%, OBC (non-creamy layer) 30%, SC 30%, ST 30%. The notice allows a 2-mark relaxation for PwBD candidates if there are too few of them for the reserved vacancies.
How many vacancies are there in RRB Group D?
22,195 tentative vacancies for CEN 09/2025 (Level 1), as officially published on 31 January 2026.
When is the last date to apply for RRB Group D?
Online applications (closing date extended by Corrigendum 4): 31 January 2026 to 9 March 2026 (now closed). As per the CEN 09/2025 (Level 1) notification.
What are the RRB Group D first-stage exam dates?
Computer Based Test (CBT): 3 August 2026 to 25 August 2026, as per the CEN 09/2025 (Level 1) notification.
Which subjects does the RRB Group D exam test?
The official syllabus lists: Mathematics; General Intelligence and Reasoning; General Science; General Awareness and Current Affairs.
Source: Centralised Employment Notification (CEN) No. 09/2025: Recruitment for Various Posts in Level 1 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix (published 31 January 2026, with Corrigenda 1 to 5) ↗ · Last verified: 15 October 2026 (If it shows “Request Rejected”, open rrb.indianrailways.gov.in first, then the link again.) · Report an error
How this page is made
These facts are transcribed from the official documents linked above and checked against them on the date shown. If anything here differs from the official notification, the official notification is right. Please tell us through the Contact page. See also our editorial standards. Contact · Editorial standards